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TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies Question Paper and Answer Key PDF (Sep 28, 2025)

Shristy Kandwal

Oct 29, 2026

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies Question Paper, Answer Key, and Detailed Solutions are available here to download in PDF format. TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 exam was conducted on September 28, 2025, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM.

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key PDF

1. Match the following and choose the correct option :

(a) Chloroform 1. CCl3 NO2
(b) Phosgene 2. ClC2H4-S-C2H4Cl
(c) Tear gas 3. CHCl3
(d) Mustard gas 4. COCl2

(A) A, B, C, D : 3, 4, 2, 1

(B) A, B, C, D : 1, 4, 3, 2

(C) A, B, C, D : 3, 4, 1, 2

(D) A, B, C, D : 4, 3, 1, 2

Correct Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following statements are true about the Nordics?
(i) Indo-Aryans are the last immigirants into India.
(ii) This group was the next to come to India after the Negritos.
(iii) This group have come into India between 2000 and 1500 BC.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (B)

3. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Satakarni was First Satavahana King and not the powerful Satavahana ruler.
(ii) His achievements are not described in the Managhat inscription.
(iii) His name was inscribed on one of the gateways of Sanchi stupa and referred to as "Lord of Dakshinpatha".

(A) (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) only

(D) (i) and (ii) only

Correct Answer: (A)

4. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true about Indian National Congress?
(i) The Father of Indian National Congress is A.O. Hume.
(ii) The first President of Indian National Congress was S.N. Banerjee.
(iii) S.N. Banerjee founded Indian National Liberation Federation.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (B)

5. Incorporation of Fundamental Duties to the Constitution of India was done by ______

(A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976

(B) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1977

(C) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978

(D) 45th Constitutional Amendment Act 1980

Correct Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following are true about Tamil Nadu Panchayats Act, 1994?
(i) Chapter II of this Act deals with Gram Sabha.
(ii) Chapter VII deals with Taxation and Finance.
(iii) Chapter XII deals with Penalties.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (C)

7. Find out Incorrectly paired :

Commission Year of Establishment
(1) NHRC 1993
(2) Central Information Commission 2005
(3) Central Vigilance Commission 1963
(4) Central Bureau of Investigation 1969

(A) (2) and (3) only

(B) (1) and (2) only

(C) (3) and (4) only

(D) (2) and (4) only

Correct Answer: (C)

8. Tamil Nadu Government celebrated April 29 to May 5 to mark Birth anniversary of

(A) Pavendar Bharathidasan

(B) Perunthalaivar Kamarajar

(C) Pasumpon Muthu Ramalinganar

(D) Peraringar Anna

Correct Answer: (A)

9. Which is/are the key feature/s of the Women's Reservation Bill passed by the Lok Sabha on 20th Sept. 2023?
(i) The Bill reserves 33% of all seats for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(ii) It will not apply to the seats reserved for SC/ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislatures.
(iii) Reservation to be provided for 25 years.
(iv) To be effective after delimitation exercise.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (B)

10. Choose the right matches :

(1) NHS National Health Service
(2) CBHI Central Bureau of Health Insurance
(3) PHC Primary Health Center
(4) NRHM National Real Health Mission

(A) (1) and (3) are correct

(B) (1) and (2) are correct

(C) (2) and (3) are correct

(D) (3) and (4) are correct

Correct Answer: (A)

11. Assertion [A] : Quality of life of people living in rural areas of Tamil Nadu has improved
Reason [R] : The Tamil Nadu state has introduced a flagship programme called Tamilnadu Village Habitations Improvement Scheme.

(A) [A] is true and [R] is false

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is false; [R] is true

(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

Correct Answer: (B)

12. Match the following with the schemes

(a) Mathi Bazar 1. Clean energy
(b) Pasumai Veedugal Thittam 2. Skill development
(c) Naan Mudalvan 3. Poverty Eradication
(d) Aajeevika 4. SHG

(A) 3
1
2
4

(B) 4
1
2
3

(C) 1
3
2
4

(D) 4
3
1
2

Correct Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following statements are true about Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in Tamil Nadu?
(i) Tamil Nadu ranks third in the country in Udyam Registrations.
(ii) 30% of the state's entrepreneurs are women.
(iii) Coimbatore has the most number of MSMEs in the state.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Khilji building?
(i) K.S. Lal observes that with the enthronement of Alauddin Khilji, a new era was ushered in architecture in the Hindu Muslim style
(ii) Marshall writes "Hauz-i-khas is one of the most treasured gems of Islamic architecture."
(iii) "Percy Brown remarks" the entrance gateway of the mosque of Alauddin Khilji occupies a key position in the evolution of Islamic architecture in India.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Correct Answer: (C)

15. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
(1) Civil disobedience movement
(2) Sepoy Mutiny
(3) Vellore Mutiny
(4) South Indian Rebellion

(A) (2), (3), (1), (4)

(B) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(C) (4), (2), (3), (1)

(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Correct Answer: (D)

16. Match correctly the books and the Author name :

(a) Thirukkural Uraivalam 1. Va.Se. Kulanthai Samy
(b) Thirukkural nunporul malai 2. Ki.Va. Jeganathan
(c) Thirukkural Araichi pathippu 3. Karirathina Kavirayar
(d) Vazhum Valluvam 4. Thandapani Thesigar

(A) 4
3
2
1

(B) 1
2
3
4

(C) 4
2
1
3

(D) 1
3
4
2

Correct Answer: (A)

17. Arranging the chronological order/event type. Arrange the major Pallava Kings.

1. Simhavishnu 555 to 590 CE
2. Mahendravarman I 590 to 630 CE
3. Narasimhavarman I 630 to 668 CE
4. Rajasimha 695 to 728 CE

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 3, 1, 2, 4

(C) 4, 2, 3, 1

(D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Correct Answer: (A)

18. Who was the female poet who gave focused on heroism in the Tamil Society of Sangam Era as 'Thondruvan Matho Porkalathane'?

(A) Okkur Masathiar

(B) Kaval Pendu

(C) Velliveethiar

(D) Avvaiyar

Correct Answer: (B)

19. 3 men or 4 women or 12 boys can complete a work in one day. In how many days a man, a woman and 5 boys together can complete that work?

(A) 1 day

(B) 2 days

(C) 3 days

(D) 4 days

Correct Answer: (A)

20. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5:7:8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

(A) 2:3:4

(B) 6:7:8

(C) 6:8:9

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

21. The cost of 15 kg of sugar is Rs. 255, the cost of 17 kg of tea is Rs. 1,615 and the cost of 22 kg of rice is Rs. 572. What is the total cost of 18 kg of sugar, 21 kg of tea and 27 kg of rice?

(A) Rs. 2,442

(B) Rs. 3,923

(C) Rs. 3,003

(D) Rs. 2,932

Correct Answer: (C)

22. The income of a person is increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. Find the change in his income in percentage.

(A) reduced by 1%

(B) increased by 1%

(C) reduced by 2%

(D) increased by 2%

Correct Answer: (A)

23. Ravi ranks 9th in a class of 45 students. There are 18 students below Raj Rankwise. How many students are there between Ravi and Raj rankwise?

(A) 27

(B) 17

(C) 18

(D) 19

Correct Answer: (B)

24. If DANGER is coded as 10-7-20-13-11-24, then the code of 'MACHINE' in the same code is

(A) 13-7-20-9-11-25-15

(B) 13-7-20-10-11-25-15

(C) 19-7-9-15-14-11-20

(D) 19-7-9-14-15-20-11

Correct Answer: (D)

25. Carbon serves for the following purpose/purposes in living organisms :
(1) It's a structural component of organic molecule.
(2) Helps to bind with other molecules.
(3) Gives flexibility to the form and function of Biomolecules such as DNA and RNA.

(A) (1) alone

(B) (2) alone

(C) (3) alone

(D) (1), (2) and (3)

Correct Answer: (D)

26. Which of the following statements are true?
Essential properties of Magnetic Materials to be an Electromagnet.
I. Narrow hysteresis loop
II. High permeability
III. High coercivity
IV. Low retentivity

(A) I alone correct

(B) Both II and III are correct

(C) II, III and IV are correct

(D) I, II and IV are correct

Correct Answer: (D)

27. Consider the statements about the soil and choose the right answer :
(1) The soils of northern plains are largely deposited by Himalayan Rivers.
(2) The presence of Iron Oxide is more in a soil popularly known as black soil.
(3) The soil derived from deccan trap is fertile and has high moisture holding capacity.

(A) (1) is true/correct

(B) (1) and (3) are correct

(C) (2) and (3) are correct

(D) (1) and (2) are correct

Correct Answer: (B)

28. Choose the right matches among type :

(1) Permanent Settlement Lord Curzon
(2) Partition of Bengal Cornwallis
(3) Ryotwari System Munro
(4) Network of Railways Dalhousie

(A) (1) and (3) are correct

(B) (1) and (2) are correct

(C) (2) and (3) are correct

(D) (3) and (4) are correct

Correct Answer: (D)

29. Arrange the following in chronological order :
(1) The Indian National Army Trial
(2) Formation of Indian National Army
(3) The Royal Indian Air Force
(4) C. Rajagopalachari's Formula

(A) (4), (2), (1), (3)

(B) (2), (1), (3), (4)

(C) (3), (2), (4), (1)

(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Correct Answer: (C)

30. Choose the true statement(s) about the Fundamental Duties :
(1) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India.
(2) To protect and improve the Natural Environment.
(3) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
(4) To safeguard private property.

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3) only

(D) (2), (3) and (4) only

Correct Answer: (A)

31. Identify the correct order of the table of Precedence

(A) Ministers of State of the Union, Chief Ministers of States, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Vice-President

(B) Vice-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Chief Ministers of States, Ministers of State of the Union

(C) Vice-President, Ministers of State of the Union, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Chief Ministers of States

(D) Vice-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Ministers of State of the Union, Chief Ministers of States

Correct Answer: (B)

32. Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
A nation or society without the participation of women cannot achieve development. If we eliminate gender discrimination women will deliver all the potentials. Knowledge to develop the family the nation and the world. As former UN Secretary General Kofi Annan has stated - Gender equality is more than a goal in itself. It is pre condition for meeting the challenges of reducing poverty, promoting sustainable development and building good governance.
Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Steps to be taken to ensure Women Education

(B) Importance has to be given to reduce gender discrimination

(C) Strong measures have to be taken to stop Sexual Harassment of Women

(D) Need for the employment Generation Programmes for Women

Correct Answer: (B)

33. Consider the statements on the national co-operative development corporation (NCDC) and choose the correct answer
(1) It is a statutory corporation
(2) It is an autonomous organization
(3) Now it is a public financial institution
(4) Operating under the administrative control of ministry of agriculture and farmer welfare

(A) (2) and (3) only

(B) (1) and (3) only

(C) (1) and (4) only

(D) (2) and (4) only

Correct Answer: (C)

34. Match correctly the systems/ideologies with their corresponding names:

(a) Report of Ryotwari System 1. Thanthai Periyar
(b) Panchamer Schools as Adidravida Schools 2. Thomas Munro and Francis Ellis
(c) Leader fought against Patriarchal Chauvinism 3. John Rawls
(d) Theory of Justice 4. Ayothidasar and Singaravelar

(A) 2
4
3
1

(B) 2
3
1
4

(C) 2
1
4
3

(D) 2
4
1
3

Correct Answer: (D)

35. The initative to eliminate open defecation in India and improve solid waste management through the 'Swachh Bharat mission', leads to

(A) Decline in poverty rates

(B) Improve employment opportunities

(C) Improve public health and foster a culture of cleanliness

(D) Inadequate infrastructure

Correct Answer: (C)

36. Which of the following is incorrectly paired in rural-urban migration?

(1) Rural to rural migration Reverse push back
(2) Rural to urban migration Push - Pull activity
(3) Urban to urban migration Urban turnover
(4) Urban to rural migration Rural turnover

(A) (1) and (4)

(B) (1) and (2)

(C) (2) and (3)

(D) (3) and (4)

Correct Answer: (A)

37. Assertion [A]: Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories.
Reason [R] : Migration can be external or international.

(A) [A] is true but [R] is false

(B) [A] is false and [R] is true

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true

(D) Both [A] and [R] are false

Correct Answer: (C)

38. Which of the following are correctly paired?

(1) Kurinji Parrot
(2) Mullai Wild-cock
(3) Marudam Lark
(4) Neydal Owl
(5) Palai Pigeon

(A) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)

(B) (2), (3), (4)

(C) (3), (4), (5)

(D) (1), (2), (5)

Correct Answer: (D)

39. Read the following assertion and reason and select the correct answer from the code given below.
Assertion [A]: In 1801 the British attacked Sivagangai with a powerful army.
Reason [R] : In 1801 the Marudhu brother Chinna Marudhu gave asylum to Oomaidurai.

(A) [A] is true but [R] is false

(B) [A] is false but [R] is true

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not a correct explanation of [A]

Correct Answer: (C)

40. Thirukkural is a compilation of the sublime, pure human thoughts according to M. Ariel - Based on this saying who has referred the Thirukkural as the Tamil's sacred book

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Arignar Anna

(C) M. Varatharajan

(D) G.U. Pope

Correct Answer: (D)

41. To arrange Valluvar's statement about Sageness
(1) Modesty
(2) Truth
(3) Love
(4) Obligation
(5) Complaisance

(A) (4), (3), (2), (5), (1)

(B) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)

(C) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)

(D) (3), (1), (4), (5), (2)

Correct Answer: (D)

42. "Iruppu Mugam Seriththa Aenthelil Maruppin" - Identify the figure of speech used in the above line

(A) Simile

(B) Metaphor

(C) Personification

(D) Irony

Correct Answer: (B)

43. A, B and C can separately do a work in 12, 15 and 20 days respectively. They started to work together but C left after 2 days. Then A and B will finish the remaining work in ______ days.

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 15

Correct Answer: (A)

44. A square park is surrounded by a path of uniform width 2 metre all around it. The area of the path is 288 sq. metres. Find the perimeter of the park

(A) 124 m

(B) 144 m

(C) 100 m

(D) 136 m

Correct Answer: (D)

45. A man spends Rs. 500 in buying 12 tables and chairs. The cost of one table is Rs. 50 and that of one chair is Rs. 40. What is the ratio of the numbers of the chairs and tables purchased?

(A) 5:1

(B) 2:10

(C) 10:5

(D) 9:3

Correct Answer: (A)

46. If LCM of 'a' and "a+2" is 1300. Find the LCM of "a" and a+1.

(A) 1350

(B) 2600

(C) 2550

(D) 2700

Correct Answer: (C)

47. If a⁄b = 4⁄5 and b⁄c = 15⁄16 then c2 - a2⁄c2 + a2 =

(A) 1⁄7

(B) 7⁄25

(C) 3⁄4

(D) 25⁄7

Correct Answer: (B)

48. The number 311 311 311 311 311 311 311 is ______

(A) neither divisible by 3 nor by 11

(B) divisible by 11 but not by 3

(C) divisible by 3 but not by 11

(D) divisible by both 3 and 11

Correct Answer: (A)

49. In a dice if 1 is opposite to 4 and 2 is opposite to 5, then

(A) 3 is adjacent to 4 and 6

(B) 3 is adjacent to 5 and 6

(C) 2 is adjacent to 3 and 6

(D) 1 is adjacent to 4 and 6

Correct Answer: (C)

50. Modern man originated in which period and epoch of Geological Time scale :

Period Epoch
(i) Tertiary Paleocene
(ii) Tertiary Pliocene
(iii) Tertiary Oligocene
(iv) Tertiary Miocene

(A) (i) is correct

(B) (ii) is correct

(C) (iii) is correct

(D) (iv) is correct

Correct Answer: (B)

51. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of carbon monoxide emissions?
(1) Its mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
(2) They are more evident in petrol engine.
(3) Long term exposure can cause nausea.

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3)

(D) (1) and (3)

Correct Answer: (C)

52. Choose the right statement(s) about Malwa Plateau :
(1) It has an average altitude of 600 m and slopes towards the east.
(2) The plateau region is mostly drained by chambal and its tributary rivers.
(3) The Malwa plateau is located in Rajastan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

(A) (1) is correct

(B) (1) and (3) are correct

(C) (2) and (3) are correct

(D) (1) and (2) are correct

Correct Answer: (C)

53. Reason and Assertion :
Assertion [A]: Besides being a political Leader, Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a great Social Reformer.
Reason [R] : He was one of the founders of the distinguished organisation known as "The Servants of India Society".

(A) [A] is true but [R] is false

(B) [A] is false but [R] is true

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true

(D) Both [A] and [R] are false

Correct Answer: (C)

54. Arrange the events in chronological order:
(1) Communal Award
(2) Gandhi Irwin Pact
(3) Chittagong outburst
(4) Poona Pact

(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

(B) (2), (3), (4), (1)

(C) (3), (2), (1), (4)

(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Correct Answer: (C)

55. Consider the following pairs :

Famous Place Region
(1) Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
(2) Khajuraho Bundelkhand
(3) Shirdi Vidarbha
(4) Nasik Malwa
(5) Tirupathi Rayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(A) (1), (2) and (4) only

(B) (2), (3), (4) and (5) only

(C) (2) and (5) only

(D) (1), (3), (4) and (5) only

Correct Answer: (C)

56. Identify the statement that is not correct with regard to President of India.

(A) President can resign from his office at any time

(B) President cannot hold office beyond his term of five years

(C) President can be removed from his office by an impeachment process

(D) No President of India has so far been impeached

Correct Answer: (B)

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list :

List I List II
Articles Councils
(a) Art 280 1. Inter-State Council
(b) Art 263 2. Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal
(c) Art 262 3. Goods and Services Tax Council
(d) Art 279 A 4. Finance Commission

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 2 1

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 1 2 3

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 1 2

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 4 3 2

Correct Answer: (B)

58. Match the following :

Acts Year
(a) Tamilnadu Consumer Protection Act 1. 1969
(b) Consumer Movement 2. 1988
(c) Tamilnadu Consumer Protection Rules 3. 1986
(d) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 4. 1974

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 2 1

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 1 2

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 1 3 4

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 1 2 4

Correct Answer: (A)

59. Arrange the following states with respect to their Niti Aayog SDG India Index 2023-24 rankings
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Uttarakhand
(3) Kerala
(4) Goa

(A) (1), (3), (2), (4)

(B) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(C) (2), (3), (1), (4)

(D) (2), (1), (3), (4)

Correct Answer: (B)

60. The Tamil Nadu Government implemented Kalaingar Magalir Urimai Thogai Scheme for the Welfare of Women. Which of the following is/are the rationale for the scheme
(i) Gender disparity in annual income according to the Global Gender Gap Report 2023
(ii) Changing the poor social status of women
(iii) Upliftment of rural women
(iv) Recognize the countless hours of silent work put in by women

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Correct Answer: (D)

61. The objectives of National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) portal is to
(i) Create a unified national virtual market for agricultural commodities.
(ii) Aid farmers in getting better prices.
(iii) Provide marketing options to the farmers.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Correct Answer: (D)

62. The objectives of National Skill Development Council is / are
(i) To empower women through economic independence
(ii) To Organise Training Programmes for youths for skill development across the country
(iii) To provide monetary awards for skill certification to boost employability
(iv) To boost the productivity of the country's workforce

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i) only

Correct Answer: (B)

63. The ceiling limit per individual for cashless treatment for the first 48 hours of the roadside accidents under "Nammai Kaakum-48" scheme is Rs.

(A) 1.00 lakh

(B) 2.00 lakh

(C) 2.50 lakh

(D) 3.00 lakh

Correct Answer: (A)

64. The Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) is functioning in its own new dedicated premises from 2022 onwards in

(A) Chepauk

(B) Mysore

(C) Kilambakkam

(D) Perumbakkam

Correct Answer: (D)

65. Match the following :

(a) Symbol of wooing 1. Kuruntogai
(b) Symbol of love 2. Leaf of the Asoka tree
(c) Crow a good harbinger 3. Natrinai
(d) Pandil game mentioned in 4. White Lilly

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 1 2

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 1 3

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 1 3

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 4 3 2

Correct Answer: (B)

66. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Gopala Nayak - Dindugal
(ii) Dhoondaji Wagh - Madurai
(iii) Marudhupandyas - Ettayapuram
(iv) Pulithevan - Nerkattanseval

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (iv) only

Correct Answer: (B)

67. Whose duties are implicity taught in Thirukkural?

(A) Men

(B) Women

(C) Citizens

(D) The King

Correct Answer: (D)

68. What according Valluvar is actually possessed by the people who are called as possessors?

(A) Motivated

(B) Heroic

(C) Wealthy

(D) Educated

Correct Answer: (D)

69. Match the following :

(a) Thalai sanga pulavanar thammul 1. Kambar
(b) Akan podhiyil Thirumunivan Tamil sangam 2. Chekilar
(c) Koodalinaintha ondeen Tamil 3. Thirugana Sambandar
(d) Madurai Thokaiyakkinan 4. Manikkavasakar

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 1 4

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 2 1

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 3 4 2

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 1 4 3

Correct Answer: (B)

70. The diameter of a sphere is 8 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 3 mm. The length of the wire is ______

(A) 36.9 m

(B) 37.9 m

(C) 38.9 m

(D) 39.9 m

Correct Answer: (B)

71. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13,380 after 3 years and Rs. 20,070 after 6 years on compound interest. Find the sum

(A) Rs. 4,014

(B) Rs. 8,460

(C) Rs. 9,210

(D) Rs. 8,920

Correct Answer: (D)

72. A, B and C start at the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds. B in 308 seconds and C in 198 seconds, all starting at the same point. After what time will they meet again at the starting point?

(A) 26 minutes 18 seconds

(B) 45 minutes

(C) 46 minutes 12 seconds

(D) 42 minutes 36 seconds

Correct Answer: (C)

73. Find the next term.
64, 32, 48, 120, 420, ______

(A) 1260

(B) 1890

(C) 1686

(D) 2318

Correct Answer: (B)

74. Directions: Based on the digit-alphabets-symbols series given below, answer the following.
@18HLI6K*&?UE
How many numbers are there in the series which are preceded by a vowel and succeeded by a consonant?

(A) Two

(B) Four

(C) Three

(D) One

Correct Answer: (D)

75. There are 9 color boxes Red, Black, White, Green, Yellow, Blue,
Orange, Violet, Pink but not necessarily in same order. Only 5 boxes
placed between Red and White. Yellow is placed immediate above
White. Only three boxes are placed between Yellow and Green.
As many boxes placed between Red and Green as between Black and
Yellow. Blue is placed below black but not at bottom. More than
4 boxes are placed between Yellow and Blue one box is placed
between blue and orange. Pink box is placed above Violet. Which box
is placed immediate above and immediate below Black?

(A) Pink and Green

(B) Pink and Violet

(C) Green and Blue

(D) Pink and Orange

Correct Answer: (A)

76. If
→ stands for 'addition',
← stands for 'subtraction',
↑ stands for 'division',
↓ stands for 'multiplication',
7 stands for 'equal to' then which of the following alternatives is
correct?

(A) 7 ← 43 ↑ 6 ↓ 1 7 4

(B) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6 7 5

(C) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2 7 4

(D) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 7 6

Correct Answer: (D)

77. One of the following is a mismatch:

(1) Down's Syndrome - Autosomal trisomy of 21st chromosome
(2) Haemophilia - Sex Linked
(3) Klinefelter Syndrome - XO Complement
(4) Turner Syndrome - Female with retarded growth

(A) (3) only

(B) (1) and (3) only

(C) (2) only

(D) (1) and (2) only

Correct Answer: (C)

78. Match the following List I with List II SDGs (Sustainable
Development Goals) :

List I List II
(a) SDG 6 1. Life on Land
(b) SDG 11 2. Life Below Water
(c) SDG 14 3. Clean Water and Sanitation
(d) SDG 15 4. Sustainable Cities and Communities

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 1 2

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 2 1

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 3 4 2

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 2 1

Correct Answer: (D)

79. Which of the following statement(s) about the Din-i-Ilahi is/are
correct?

(A) The number of the followers of the Din-i-Ilahi was large

(B) It is a state religion

(C) To establish a national religion which would be acceptable to
the Muslims and the Hindus

(D) To expand its territories and gain control over the independent
states

Correct Answer: (C)

80. ___________ plate exposed that the Chola Queen Vanamadevi Committed Sati.

(A) Anbil Plate

(B) Tiruvalangadu Plate

(C) Bahur Plate

(D) Velvikudi Plate

Correct Answer: (B)

81. Match the following :

(a) Bharathiar 1. Pandian Parisu
(b) Kavimani Desiga Vinayagam Pillai 2. Tamilan Ithayam
(c) Bharathidasan 3. Kannan Pattu
(d) Ramalingam Pillai 4. Asia Jothi

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 1 4

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 1 2

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 1 2

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 1

Correct Answer: (C)

82. Match the Column (A) with Column (B) :

Column (A)
Theme
Column (B)
Year
(a) Judicial Activism 1. 1976
(b) Ethical Governance (SARC) 2. 1997
(c) Restatement of Values of
Judicial life
3. 1947
(d) Administrative Tribunal 4. 2007

(A)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 1 4 3

(B)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 2 1

(C)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 2 3 4

(D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 1 2

Correct Answer: (B)

83. Choose the correct answer by using Reason [R] and Assertion [A] :
Assertion [A]: The Constitution of India specifically mentions the power of Judicial review.
Reason [R] : The Judiciary has successfully expanded the scope of Judicial review over the years.

(A) [A] is true; but [R] is false

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is false, [R] is true

(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]

Correct Answer: (C)

84. Find out which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) S.R. Bommai Case (1994) - President's Rule

(B) Unni Krishnan Case (1993) - Right to Education

(C) Prakash Singh Case (2006) - Judicial Reforms

(D) M. Nagaraj Case (2006) - Reservation

Correct Answer: (C)

85. "No man shall be taken or imprisoned, disseized or outlawed, or exiled, or in any way destroyed save... by the law of the land”.
This famous clause is in...

(A) Bill of Rights

(B) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

(C) Magna Carta

(D) The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993

Correct Answer: (C)

86. Assertion [A] : HIV infection more often spreads due to
conscious behaviour patterns.
Reason [R] : The infection of AIDS in blood transfusion
patients may occur due to poor monitoring

(A) Both [A] and [R] are not true

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation
of [A]

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(D) [A] is true and [R] is false

Correct Answer: (C)

87. Assertion [A] : Women's empowerment is a cornerstone of social justice. Initiatives such as working women hostels, creches and women-specific skilling programmes aim to enhance women's participation in the work force.
Reason [R] : Removing barriers to women's participation in the economy, the Government is fostering a more inclusive and dynamic work force.

(A) [A] is true; [R] is false

(B) [A] is false; [R] is true

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

Correct Answer: (C)

88. Tax Incentives for startup companies for a period of three years have been introduced in the

(A) Finance Act, 2016

(B) September 25, 2014

(C) November 4, 2011

(D) Finance Act, 2014

Correct Answer: (A)

89. The major renewable energy source in Tamil Nadu

(A) Windmill

(B) Coal

(C) Oil and Gas

(D) Nuclear power

Correct Answer: (A)

90. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

(1) Coimbatore - Manchester of South India
(2) Madurai - Cultural capital of Tamil Nadu
(3) Namakkal - Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu
(4) Thanjavur - Egg city

(A) (1) and (4)

(B) (1) and (2)

(C) (2) and (3)

(D) (3) and (4)

Correct Answer: (C)

91. Choose the right matches among type :

(1) Kaverippakkam Inscription Varaguna
(2) Thirumukkudal Inscription Virarajendra
(3) Tiruvalangadu Plates Rajendra I
(4) Uthiramerur Inscription Parantaka I

(A) (1) and (2) are correct

(B) (3) and (4) are correct

(C) (2), (3) and (4) are correct

(D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct

Correct Answer: (C)

92. Identify the party which started Anti-Non Cooperation League in
Madras Presidency.

(A) Swatantra Party

(B) Justice Party

(C) Communist Party

(D) Indian National Congress

Correct Answer: (B)

93. Find out the correct statement :

(1) Thirukkural was translated in Hindi - Appathetsithar
(2) Thirukkural was translated in German - Arial
(3) Thirukkural starts with alphabet 'அ' (Aa) and end with 'ன' (Na)
(4) Friendship has 13 chapters

(A) (1) only

(B) (1), (3) only

(C) (1), (4) only

(D) (2), (4) only

Correct Answer: (C)

94. Assertion [A]: "All opinions are here, There is nothing
that is not in it".
Reason [R]: Many of Thiruvalluvar's ideas were innovative and
revolutionary compared to the prevailing policies of
his time.

(A) [A] is true but [R] is false

(B) [A] is false but [R] is true

(C) Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

Correct Answer: (D)

95. Choose the right matches of the following places where Sangam period coins were found in Tamil Nadu.

(1) Dharmapuri - Thoppoor
(2) Salem - Kanniyan Kuttai
(3) Erode - Mukkombu
(4) Trichy - Vembavoor

(A) (1) and (2) are correct

(B) (2) and (3) are correct

(C) (3) and (4) are correct

(D) (2) and (4) are correct

Correct Answer: (A)

96. A borrows Rs. 16,000 at 12% p.a. simple interest and B borrows Rs. 12,000 at 18% p.a. simple interest. In how many years will their amounts debt be equal?

(A) 122⁄3 years

(B) 142⁄3 years

(C) 162⁄3 years

(D) 182⁄3 years

Correct Answer: (C)

97. Two numbers are in the ratio of 15: 11. If their HCF is 13. Find the numbers.

(A) 585 and 429

(B) 195 and 143

(C) 390 and 286

(D) 117 and 182

Correct Answer: (B)

98. The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad is

(A) 738

(B) 814

(C) 902

(D) 656

Correct Answer: (B)

99. P is elder than Q. R is elder than Q but younger than P. S is elder than P but younger than T. Who is the youngest?

(A) R

(B) T

(C) Q

(D) S

Correct Answer: (C)

100. If A→1, B→2, C→3.... Z→26
AB + BC + CA will not be equal to ________

(A) √FX

(B) S-G

(C) (B) (E)

(D) L

Correct Answer: (A)

TNPSC Group 2 2025 Prelims Important Topics

TNPSC Group 2 Preliminary Examination covers General Studies, Aptitude and Mental Ability, and General English or General Tamil. Candidates should focus on important topics from the prescribed syllabus and use previous year question papers to understand question trends and improve accuracy.

Subject Important Topics
Indian History Indus Valley Civilization, Vedic Period, Maurya and Gupta Empires, Delhi Sultanate, Mughals, Ancient and Medieval India
Indian National Movement Revolt of 1857, Indian National Congress, Swadeshi Movement, Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement
Indian Polity Indian Constitution, Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles, Parliament, President, Prime Minister, Judiciary, Panchayati Raj
Indian Economy Five-Year Plans, NITI Aayog, RBI, Banking, Fiscal and Monetary Policy, GST, Agriculture, Poverty, Unemployment, Economic Development
Geography of India Physical Features, Rivers, Mountains, Monsoon, Climate, Soil Types, Agriculture, Minerals, Natural Resources, Population
General Science Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Human Body, Nutrition, Diseases, Scientific Discoveries, Inventions, Environmental Science
Tamil Nadu History and Culture Ancient Tamil Society, Sangam Age, Sangam Literature, Chera, Chola and Pandya Dynasties, Bhakti Movement, Tamil Culture, Social Reformers
Tamil Nadu Administration State Government, Local Self-Government, Welfare Schemes, Social Justice, Reservation Policy, Human Development Indicators, E-Governance
Aptitude and Mental Ability Percentage, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Profit and Loss, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time and Work, Time and Distance
Logical Reasoning Number Series, Coding-Decoding, Analogy, Classification, Blood Relations, Direction Sense, Puzzles, Logical Reasoning
General English Grammar, Parts of Speech, Tenses, Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Sentence Correction, Comprehension
General Tamil Grammar, Synonyms, Antonyms, Tamil Literature, Authors and Works, Thirukkural, Proverbs, Reading Comprehension
Current Affairs National and International Events, Tamil Nadu Government Schemes, Awards, Sports, Important Appointments, Science and Technology
Environment and Ecology Ecosystems, Biodiversity, Pollution, Climate Change, Conservation, Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Sustainable Development

Candidates can use TNPSC Group 2 Previous Year Question Papers to understand question patterns and practise important topics. Regular revision, mock tests and time management can help improve preparation.

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TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies Exam Analysis

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies exam analysis covers the difficulty level of questions asked from different subjects. Based on the available question paper and exam reviews, the General Studies section was Moderate in difficulty. The paper included questions from Indian History, Indian Polity, Geography, Economy, General Science, and Tamil Nadu History and Culture. Candidates can check the subject-wise difficulty level below.

Section Difficulty Level
Indian History and National Movement Moderate
Indian Polity Moderate
Indian Economy and Development Administration Moderate
Geography Easy to Moderate
General Science Easy to Moderate
Tamil Nadu History and Culture Moderate
Overall General Studies Difficulty Level Moderate

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies Question Paper FAQs

Ques: What is the educational standard of TNPSC Group 2 Prelims General Studies questions?

Ans: TNPSC Group 2 Prelims General Studies questions are based on the degree standard. Candidates are expected to have a good understanding of basic concepts and their application across different subjects.

Ques: Is the General Studies section compulsory in TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025?

Ans: Yes, General Studies is compulsory for all candidates appearing in TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025. Candidates must attempt this section regardless of whether they choose General Tamil or General English.

Ques: How many marks are required to qualify for TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025?

Ans: Candidates must secure at least 90 marks out of 300 to meet the minimum qualifying requirement. However, the actual cut off for shortlisting candidates for the Mains examination may be higher.

Ques: Are TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 marks included in the final merit list?

Ans: No, the Preliminary Examination is conducted for screening purposes. Marks obtained in Prelims are not considered while preparing the final merit list.

Ques: Can I use TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025 General Studies Question Paper for upcoming examinations?

Ans: Yes, candidates can practise the 2025 General Studies Question Paper to understand the types of questions asked in the examination. Solving the paper can help identify weak areas, improve accuracy, and develop better time management skills.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.
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