A 25-year-old male presents with complaints of urethral discharge and dysuria for the past 1 week. The discharge was scant and mucoid for a few days but he reports profuse and yellowish discharge since 2 days. Gram staining of the urethral discharge reveals gram-negative intracellular monococci and diplococci. On further questioning, he gives a history of unprotected sexual intercourse 15 days ago. Which one of the following conditions will be your most probable diagnosis?
Gonorrhea
Profuse purulent urethral discharge with gram-negative intracellular diplococci on Gram stain following unprotected intercourse is diagnostic of gonococcal urethritis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Important Questions from Bacterial Infections
Which of the following are major criteria under the Jones Criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
1. Chorea
2. Erythema Marginatum
3. Subcutaneous Nodules
4. Polyarthralgia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- Whipple's disease is characterized by the infiltration of small intestinal mucosa by 'foamy' macrophages. Which one of the following histological stains is characteristically used to stain them?
- A young male presented with recent onset urethral discharge and dysuria. On examination, the discharge was profuse and purulent. Microscopy of smears from the discharge revealed Gram-negative diplococci. What is the likely diagnosis?
- Cat-scratch disease is caused by infection of which of the following organisms?
Which of the following drugs is/are useful in the treatment of Listeria monocytogenes infection?
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Gentamicin
3. Ampicillin
4. Sulfamethoxazole
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
