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Question

If \(\dfrac{3y}{4}-1=\dfrac{y}{3}\), then \(y\) is equal to :

This question was previously asked in
CTET 2022 Paper 2 Maths Question Paper (Jan-27-2023) (Eng-Hin-Skt)
The correct answer is

\(2\dfrac{2}{5}\)

Given \(\dfrac{3y}{4}-1=\dfrac{y}{3}\).

Bringing the y-terms to one side: \(\dfrac{3y}{4}-\dfrac{y}{3}=1\).

Taking the LCM of 4 and 3, which is 12: \(\dfrac{9y-4y}{12}=1\).

\(\dfrac{5y}{12}=1\), so \(y=\dfrac{12}{5}\).

\(y=2\dfrac{2}{5}\).

Hence, y is equal to \(2\dfrac{2}{5}\).

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