A 42-year-old labourer developed a sudden, severe and persistent headache, accompanied by vomiting and neck pain. He was evaluated at the nearest hospital where an emergency computed tomography was negative for stroke. Which one of the following investigations is best to confirm the diagnosis?
Lumbar puncture after 12 hours
This presentation is classic for subarachnoid haemorrhage (thunderclap headache, vomiting, neck stiffness). When CT is negative, lumbar puncture performed after at least 12 hours from symptom onset is the confirmatory test, looking for xanthochromia from breakdown of red blood cells in the CSF.
Similar Questions
A 47-year-old man with a large frontoparietal lesion in the right hemisphere was asked to circle all the A's. Only targets on the right were circled. This is a manifestation of:
A 40-year-old man was found to have weakness of the right shoulder and arm 6 hours before presentation. This was followed by weakness of the ipsilateral leg, then left leg, followed by left arm (around-the-clock pattern). Where in the neuraxis is the lesion likely to be present?
Which of the following features are present in Locked-in syndrome?
1. Cerebral cortex is intact.
2. Bilateral motor tracts are damaged.
3. Some response to verbal stimuli may be present.
4. Limb movement occurs in response to noxious stimuli.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Important Questions from Stroke
- Transient Monocular blindness may be due to small platelet emboli that occludes:
- The phenomenon of sparing of macular vision is due to collateral circulation between:
- The commonest cause for new-onset seizures in patients older than 65 years is:
- Ipsilateral $3^{rd}$ cranial nerve palsy with contralateral cerebellar signs is seen in:
- Incongruous contralateral homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:
