A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with seizures. He has been receiving oral phenytoin since the age of 6 months and has a history of epileptic spasms despite therapy. Examination reveals some hypopigmented lesions over the chest. MRI brain shows subependymal nodules. Which one of the following is the best anti-epileptic drug for him after stabilization in the emergency room?
Oral Vigabatrin
Hypopigmented (ash-leaf) skin lesions, subependymal nodules on MRI, and epileptic spasms are characteristic of Tuberous Sclerosis Complex presenting with infantile spasms. Vigabatrin is the first-line and most effective anti-epileptic for infantile spasms associated with tuberous sclerosis.
Important Questions from Epilepsy
Consider the following with regard to trigger factors for seizures :
1. Flickering lights
2. Recreational drug misuse
3. Non-compliance to treatment with antiepileptic drugs
4. Sleep deprivation
Which of the factors given above are correct?
Focal seizures may be associated with which of the following?
1. Jacksonian march
2. Todd's paralysis
3. Epilepsia partialis continua
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- Typical absence seizures are characterized by
- In a young epileptic woman wishing to use oral contraceptive agents, which of the following drugs is not an ideal agent?
- Which of the following is not useful in the management of status epilepticus?
