CDS 2 English Answer Key Out Sep 13, 2026; Check Detailed Solution

CDS 2 English Answer Key 2026 with Detailed Solutions is available here to download in PDF format. UPSC CDS 2 2026 was conducted on September 13, 2026, with the English paper held from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM. Candidates can use the set-wise CDS 2 English Answer Key to cross-check their responses, calculate their expected marks and review detailed explanations for the questions asked in the examination.

Also Check: CDS 2 2026 All Subjects Question Paper with Detailed Solutions

CDS 2 2026 English Answer Key with Detailed Solution

Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the answer sheet against the above-mentioned corresponding letter. If there is no error, indicate your response as (d).

1. The teacher asked (a) that who was absent (b) in the class that day. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

2. Neither of the two boys (a) have done (b) his homework. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

3. I recommended (a) that he would reduce (b) his expenditure. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

4. I am looking forward (a) to meet you (b) next month. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

5. She said that (a) she will help me (b) in this matter. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

6. He insisted (a) on knowing (b) the reason of my absence. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(c)

7. In your quotidian life (a) you wouldn’t find an elephant (b) in the supermarket. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(b)

8. I often dreamed (a) of being famous (b) in my prime. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(d)

9. These shoes designed (a) for regular runners (b) like yourself. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(a)

10. Walk down our street (a) any day you will (b) see children playing. (c) No error. (d)

(a) (a)

(b) (b)

(c) (c)

(d) (d)

Correct Answer:(d)

Directions : Given below are idioms/phrases. Choose the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

11. To overplay one’s hand

(a) To spoil one’s chance of success due to overconfidence

(b) To play card games for too long

(c) To play exceedingly well with one hand

(d) To be a strong arm-wrestler

Correct Answer:(a)

12. Pass the buck

(a) To treat someone badly

(b) To deflect blame

(c) To refuse money

(d) To accept an unpleasant result

Correct Answer:(b)

13. Over one’s head

(a) Protective covering worn as a hat

(b) Bypassing authority surreptitiously

(c) Appreciably taller than one

(d) Beyond one’s ability to understand

Correct Answer:(d)

14. Have a finger in every pie

(a) To be familiar with the most recent developments

(b) To gorge on food

(c) To be able to do something very well

(d) To be involved in different activities

Correct Answer:(d)

15. To go out on a limb

(a) Adopt a convenient position that aligns with the popular view

(b) Adopt a convenient position that goes against the popular view

(c) Adopt a daring position that goes against the popular view

(d) Adopt a daring position that aligns with the popular view

Correct Answer:(c)

16. Live on your nerves

(a) To be continually anxious

(b) To live life to the fullest

(c) To live without fear

(d) To be steely nerved

Correct Answer:(c)

17. Lilly-livered

(a) Cowardly

(b) Weak

(c) Inebriated

(d) Triumphant

Correct Answer:(a)

18. To spill the beans

(a) To be bursting with energy and health

(b) To let a secret slip out

(c) To be laidback and easy-going

(d) To let food go waste

Correct Answer:(b)

19. To make one’s peace

(a) To experience serenity

(b) To avoid violence at any cost

(c) To put an end to a quarrel

(d) To keep silent amidst adversity

Correct Answer:(c)

20. Fall by the wayside

(a) To trip on the footpath

(b) To lose one’s sense of direction

(c) To weaken moral values

(d) To drop out of a pursuit

Correct Answer:(d)

Directions : In the following items similar sounding words are given, followed by sentences wherein these words has been used, and underlined. You are required to identify those sentences in which these words have been used most appropriately and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

21. Weather, Whether, Whither

1. Weather permitting, we’ll have the gathering outside.

2. Whether conditions are likely to improve by Thursday.

3. They didn’t know whither they should go.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(c)

22. Quiet, Quite, Quit

1. He plays quiet well.

2. They had a quite wedding.

3. He has decided to quit as the manager of the team.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(d)

23. Way, Weigh, Whey

1. I’m not happy with this way of working.

2. How much does it weigh?

3. Whey is the thin liquid that separates from the solid parts when milk is curdled.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(d)

24. Weave, Wave, Waive

1. She loves to wave stories.

2. Unfortunately, he had to waive his rights.

3. A huge weave broke on the shore.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(b)

25. Peak, Peek, Pique

1. Traffic reaches its peak between 8 and 9 in the morning.

2. She peeked at the audience from behind the curtain.

3. When he realised nobody was listening to him, he left in a fit of pique.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(d)

26. Sent, Scent, Cent

1. A one minute phone call to the UK costs one sent.

2. The air was filled with the scent of wild flowers.

3. The dogs following him must have lost his cent.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(b)

27. Aisle, Ale, Isle

1. I always prefer the isle seat in an aeroplane.

2. He always began his day with a glass of ginger ale.

3. While on a picnic we discovered a small aisle in the middle of a lake.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(b)

28. Rein, Reign, Arraign

1. Queen Elizabeth II had a long rein as a British monarch.

2. One needs to reign in their impulses at times.

3. He was arraigned before the judge yesterday.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(b)

29. Ascend, Ascent, Assent

1. She made the ascend to the top of the mountains seem effortless.

2. The Prince waited a long time to ascent the throne.

3. She gave her tacit assent to the transfer of power.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(c)

30. Brawl, Bawl, Bowl

1. The brawl caused utter confusion inside the train compartment.

2. The host served a bawl of fresh garden fruit to the guests.

3. The little kid started to bowl noisily.

In which of the sentences given above have the underlined words been used correctly?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:(c)

Directions : In the following items a pair of sentences (S1, S2) is given. Select the most appropriate and relevant co-relationship of the second sentence to the first from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

31. S1. Many students failed in the examination.

S2. However, those who attended extra classes did not fail.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(d)

32. S1. The medicine was supposed to reduce his fever.

S2. Even after taking it, his temperature continued to rise.

The second sentence :

(a) negates the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(c)

33. S1. Mohan enjoys classical music.

S2. Sohan likes popular musical genres.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(b)

34. S1. Global warming is accelerating with each passing year.

S2. Recent studies indicate that temperatures are rising across continents.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(c)

35. S1. Sarah recently contended that she has never visited Paris.

S2. Someone shared a photograph that shows Sarah standing underneath the Eiffel Tower.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(a)

36. S1. The Indian team won the championship.

S2. They were struggling in the preliminary rounds.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(b)

37. S1. Geeta is an excellent public speaker.

S2. She received a standing ovation after her speech.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) affirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(c)

38. S1. The city is known for its modern architecture.

S2. The neighbouring villages maintain their traditional buildings.

The second sentence :

(a) affirms the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) quantifies the first

Correct Answer:(b)

39. S1. The train is usually on time.

S2. The train was delayed by an hour today.

The second sentence :

(a) qualifies the first

(b) contradicts the first

(c) contrasts with the first

(d) confirms the first

Correct Answer:(c)

40. S1. This vaccine is highly effective.

S2. Notably however, its effect decreases slightly in older adults.

The second sentence :

(a) contradicts the first

(b) contrasts with the first

(c) confirms the first

(d) qualifies the first

Correct Answer:(a)

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

41. Her experience is requisite for the job.

(a) essential

(b) obligatory

(c) vital

(d) optional

Correct Answer:(d)

42. They were given rudimentary training for the job.

(a) fundamental

(b) advanced

(c) basic

(d) elementary

Correct Answer:(b)

43. She sat there looking morose.

(a) cheerful

(b) melancholic

(c) disinterested

(d) sullen

Correct Answer:(a)

44. If you listen carefully you'll discover that the soundtrack is fuzzy in places.

(a) noisy

(b) distorted

(c) clear

(d) vague

Correct Answer:(c)

45. The shopkeeper is known to charge exorbitant rates for the articles in his shop.

(a) high

(b) affordable

(c) outrageous

(d) ridiculous

Correct Answer:(b)

46. If you ponder the matter you are likely to arrive at the appropriate conclusion.

(a) mull

(b) ignore

(c) defer

(d) rethink

Correct Answer:(b)

47. The diagnosis based on radiological evidence determined the condition to be mortiferous.

(a) exacerbating

(b) degenerative

(c) benign

(d) lethal

Correct Answer:(c)

48. The party president chose to placate his critics within the party.

(a) prime

(b) persuade

(c) pacify

(d) provoke

Correct Answer:(d)

49. The magician hoodwinked the children.

(a) cheated

(b) fooled

(c) disabused

(d) unhooked

Correct Answer:(c)

50. She led a precarious life as a theatre artist.

(a) insecure

(b) precious

(c) precipitous

(d) stable

Correct Answer:(d)

Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

51. Switzerland lies ______ France, Germany, Austria and Italy.

(a) among

(b) between

(c) with

(d) besides

Correct Answer:(a)

52. May I pay ______ credit card ?

(a) by

(b) with

(c) in

(d) on

Correct Answer:(a)

53. The information is available ______ the Internet.

(a) from

(b) with

(c) in

(d) on

Correct Answer:(d)

54. Didn't you borrow ______ books of mine ?

(a) some

(b) any

(c) few

(d) many

Correct Answer:(b)

55. If you have any leftover milk, could you spare me ______ ?

(a) little

(b) a little

(c) an little

(d) any

Correct Answer:(b)

56. He sat ______ her all night.

(a) aside

(b) beside

(c) besides

(d) asides

Correct Answer:(b)

57. Talk me ______ your plans.

(a) for

(b) around

(c) about

(d) through

Correct Answer:(d)

58. ______ people make their own bread today than in earlier times.

(a) Lesser

(b) Fewer

(c) Few

(d) Less

Correct Answer:(b)

59. This beautiful historical building shall soon be restored to its ______ state.

(a) normal

(b) pristine

(c) degenerate

(d) dilapidated

Correct Answer:(b)

60. I don't like being stared ______ .

(a) to

(b) at

(c) on

(d) about

Correct Answer:(b)

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

61.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists 

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Discreet	1. Decaying
B. Discrete	2. Tactful
C. Desecrate	3. Defile
D. Decrepit	4. Separate

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	2	4	3	1
(b)	4	3	2	1
(c)	1	3	2	4
(d)	4	3	1	2

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(a)

62.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Inflation	1. Expansion
B. Indentation	2. Declension
C. Infiltration	3. Permeation
D. Inflection	4. Depression

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	4	2	3	1
(b)	4	3	2	1
(c)	1	3	2	4
(d)	1	4	3	2

(a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Correct Answer:(d)

63.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Polyglot	1. Having more than one meaning
B. Polymorphous	2. A person of great and varied learning
C. Polysemy	3. A person knowing more than one language
D. Polymath	4. Having many different forms

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1	4
(b)	3	4	2	1
(c)	3	4	1	2
(d)	4	3	1	2

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(c)

64.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Philatelist	1. A person who studies language
B. Philanthropist	2. A person who does not value art or culture
C. Philologist	3. A person who collects stamps
D. Philistine	4. A person who helps the needy

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1	4
(b)	3	4	2	1
(c)	3	4	1	2
(d)	4	3	1	2

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(b)

65.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Tabernacle	1. Biased
B. Tenuous	2. Place of worship
C. Tempestuous	3. Stormy
D. Tendentious	4. Flimsy

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	2	4	3	1
(b)	4	3	2	1
(c)	1	3	2	4
(d)	4	3	1	2

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(a)

66.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Sacred	1. Oblation
B. Desecration	2. Consecrated
C. Sacrosanct	3. Defilement
D. Sacrifice	4. Inviolable

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	1	2
(b)	2	3	4	1
(c)	2	4	1	3
(d)	3	1	4	2

(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Correct Answer:(b)

67.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Triumph	1. Feeling great pride post victory
B. Triumphant	2. Act of celebrating a great success or victory
C. Triumphal	3. A show of smug superiority
D. Triumphalism	4. A notable success

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	4	1	2	3
(b)	2	3	4	1
(c)	2	4	1	3
(d)	3	1	4	2

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Correct Answer:(a)

68.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Revel	1. Unrestrained merriment
B. Revelry	2. To make merry
C. Reveal	3. Boisterous individual making merry
D. Reveller	4. Disclose

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2	3
(b)	4	3	2	1
(c)	2	1	4	3
(d)	3	4	1	2

(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(c)

69.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Word/Term)	List II (Meaning)
A. Transmit	1. To happen or occur
B. Transmute	2. To continue for only a short time
C. Transpire	3. To change into something different
D. Transient	4. To send an electronic signal

Code	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	2	1
(b)	4	2	3	1
(c)	2	4	1	3
(d)	4	3	1	2

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(d)

70.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer:(c)

PASSAGE I

When Elizabeth Long began investigating women's book groups in the mid-1980s, her research plan provoked two profoundly different sets of reactions. Women, who had themselves participated in such groups, as well as men whose mothers and grandmothers had done so, immediately grasped the importance of her project : "You will never know what a difference it made" was the phrase she heard again and again. But among her academic colleagues, common readers seemed to be occupying a zone of cultural invisibility. They were not of interest to literature departments, whose major focus is on books and authors, not readers. They were not of interest to sociologists or political scientists because women's reading groups do not pursue activities with any obvious relationship to formal political processes. Long, however, went on to show that such groups had mobilised the women's suffrage and Progressive movements at the grassroots. Scholars of popular culture had not found reading groups interesting because the groups read canonized fiction and did not transform their cultural consumption into a 'resistant' subcultural style. It had not yet occurred to them that the so-called highbrow canonical literature could be immensely popular and devilishly subversive. David Vincent's Bread, Knowledge and Freedom (1981) had already demonstrated the important role of reading in inspiring working-class consciousness in early nineteenth-century Britain. As a sociologist, Long concluded that the really important question that needed answering was why academics did not care about readers.

71. In this passage, "women's suffrage" refers to :

(a) Women's suffering

(b) Women's inability to read

(c) Women's right to vote in political elections

(d) Women's anger at political rallies

Correct Answer:(d)

72. In this passage, "grassroots" refers to :

(a) The common people at a local level

(b) The common problems faced by people

(c) The root cause of poverty

(d) The gentry in the cities

Correct Answer:(b)

73. Which of the following is the correct noun form of "subversive" ?

(a) Subvert

(b) Subverting

(c) Subversion

(d) Subvention

Correct Answer:(c)

74. In this passage, "canonical literature" refers to :

(a) War literature

(b) Nonsensical literature

(c) Influential and significant literature

(d) Pretentious and bombastic literature

Correct Answer:(b)

75. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word "resistant" ?

(a) pliant

(b) hesitant

(c) persistent

(d) defiant

Correct Answer:(a)

PASSAGE II

Christopher Columbus of Spain set foot in the New World in 1492. Six years later, Vasco da Gama of Portugal reached India. During the next two centuries the Spaniards and the Portuguese actively transferred, not only to Europe but to many parts of Asia as well, a number of plant species which they encountered in South and central America, in expectation of their potential either as food or as medicine. These plants had been developed to a high degree by the Maya and Inca civilizations of these regions. Of these, the potato (Solanum tuberosum) is believed to have been domesticated in terraced slopes on the high plateau of Bolivia-Peru in South America, sometime between 5000 and 2000 BC. Europeans first saw potatoes in South America in 1537, and around 1570 a Spanish ship brought the first potatoes to Europe. Though termed papa in South America, they were incorrectly called batata (the name for the sweet potato) when John Gerard first described them in English in 1597, and this name stuck. An 1860 report states that by 1780, potatoes, peas and beans were in high repute as foods in Calcutta, and that the Dutch are said to have been the first to introduce the culture of potatoes, which was received from their settlement of the Cape of Good Hope. From there the British received annually the seeds of every kind of vegetable useful at the table, as well as several plants of which there appears to be much need, especially various kinds of pot herbs.

76. This passage traces the history of ...

(a) the arrival of the potato in South America from Europe

(b) the arrival of the potato in Europe from India

(c) the arrival of the potato in India from Europe

(d) the arrival of the potato in India from South America

Correct Answer:(d)

77. According to this passage, how long ago was the potato domesticated in South America ?

(a) Two thousand years ago

(b) Two to five thousand years ago

(c) Four to seven thousand years ago

(d) Ten thousand years ago

Correct Answer:(c)

78. In this passage the word "culture" refers to

(a) The arts, music, literature and other intellectual achievements

(b) All the knowledge and values shared by a society

(c) The practices of the Maya and Inca civilisations

(d) Certain techniques of raising plants for propagation

Correct Answer:(d)

79. Which form of the word "settlement" can be used both as a verb and as an adjective ?

(a) Settled

(b) Settling

(c) Settler

(d) Settle

Correct Answer:(a)

80. The word "terraced" has been formed by changing

(a) A noun to a verb

(b) A verb to a noun

(c) An adjective to a noun

(d) A noun to an adjective

Correct Answer:(d)

Directions : Identify the most appropriate meaning for the words given below and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

81. Codex

(a) an ancient manuscript in book form

(b) a member of a monastic community

(c) an algorithm for cracking codes

(d) an ancient time-measuring device

Correct Answer:(a)

82. Ergonomics

(a) the study of market relations

(b) the non SI unit for energy

(c) the study of human efficiency in the workplace

(d) the study of agricultural economics

Correct Answer:(c)

83. Sobriquet

(a) a thin broth or gruel

(b) an assumed name

(c) a broken piece of glass

(d) an image or likeness of something

Correct Answer:(b)

84. Viticulture

(a) the making of vinegar

(b) the activation of any fermentable liquid

(c) the process of making wine

(d) the cultivation of grapevines

Correct Answer:(d)

85. Communiqué

(a) Official order with retrospective effect

(b) Official order with prospective effect

(c) Official retraction of an order

(d) Official announcement or statement

Correct Answer:(d)

86. Sub-judice

(a) Matter under judicial consideration

(b) Not showing or allowing any doubt regarding the legality of a matter

(c) Legal authority over an important matter

(d) A view that is untenable in the eyes of law

Correct Answer:(a)

87. Manifesto

(a) Written, printed or typed copy of words that have been spoken

(b) Written statements that describe the policies, goals, and positions of a person or group

(c) Written laws that are formally created by a government

(d) Written description of an organisation's functions and responsibilities

Correct Answer:(b)

88. Tapestry

(a) An engraved design on the surface of a plate

(b) An artwork using various materials

(c) A hand-dyed painting on fabrics

(d) A heavy decorative cloth hung on a wall

Correct Answer:(d)

89. Connotation

(a) The suggested implications beyond the literal meaning

(b) Language that describes something as better or worse than it really is

(c) A main subject that is elaborated upon in a piece of writing

(d) A literal or the primary meaning of a word

Correct Answer:(a)

90. Alibi

(a) Proven fact of having been elsewhere at the time of the commitment of a crime

(b) A witness in court who speaks in favour of the defendant

(c) Presenting a proxy to obviate punishment

(d) Proving to be someone other than the accused and escaping thereby

Correct Answer:(a)

Directions: In this section each item consists of six sentences that comprise a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The sequence of the middle four sentences has been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

91. S1: In a typical Indian village today, one is certain to find groups of women talking about finance.

S6: In a society where women play significant but never-recognised roles, being a part of an SHG which gives them such financial power is indeed a matter of pride.

P: Sitting there, they might proudly introduce themselves by saying that they are members of a self-help group (SHG).

Q: Alternatively, they might lend money at reasonable interest rates to members for starting small businesses.

R: They can be seen sitting under a tree, in an abandoned school building, or in the front yard of a village resident's dilapidated home, holding thick notebooks.

S: An SHG is usually a community group of 10-12 women from similar socio-economic background who pool their financial resources for taking up joint economic activities.

(a) Q S P R

(b) R P S Q

(c) R Q S P

(d) S Q P R

Correct Answer:(b)

92. S1: For much of history, surnames, or last names, were not considered necessary.

S6: These two pieces of medieval bureaucracy meant that virtually everyone had to settle on a definite and fixed surname.

P: The other was the enactment of the Statute of Additions in 1413, which required that all legal documents to contain not just the person's given name, but also his or her occupation and place of abode.

Q: One was the introduction of a poll tax in 1379, which led the government to collect the name of every person aged sixteen or over.

R: But sometimes, the process was accelerated such as in England where two events gave a boost to the adoption of surnames.

S: The business of acquiring surnames was a long one that evolved over centuries rather than years.

(a) R S P Q

(b) Q P R S

(c) R S Q P

(d) S R Q P

Correct Answer:(d)

93. S1: The first American settlers happened to live in the midst of perhaps the most exciting period in the history of the English language.

S6: Had the settlers gone a quarter of a century earlier, America might well have preserved those previous forms, as it preserved many other archaisms.

P: Similarly, thee and thou pronoun forms were also dying out.

Q: This was a time when 12,000 words were being added to the language.

R: One such change which these first settlers had already adopted was to use the s form on verbs, saying has rather than hath, runs rather than runneth.

S: It was also a time of considerable change in the structure of the language.

(a) R P Q S

(b) Q S R P

(c) S Q P R

(d) Q P R S

Correct Answer:(b)

94. S1: In 1984, two small clay tablets of vaguely rectangular shape were found in Tell Brak, Syria, dating from the fourth millennium BCE.

S6: All our history begins with these two modest tablets as they are among the oldest examples of writing we know.

P: One of the animals may have been a goat, in which case, the other probably was a sheep.

Q: Lying there were these simple, unimpressive objects, each bearing a few discrete markings: a small indentation near the top and some sort of stick-drawn animal in the centre.

R: The indentation, on the other hand, represents, according to archaeologists, the number ten.

S: These two tablets were seen by an expert the year before the Gulf War, in an unostentatious display case in the Archaeological Museum of Baghdad.

(a) S Q P R

(b) Q S P R

(c) Q S R P

(d) S Q R P

Correct Answer:(a)

95. S1: For generations, the Balaraju pond remained the primary water source of Perakalapudi village in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.

S6: It was only after major restoration work was carried out to restore the pond's storage capacity that the community could return to its traditional livelihood.

P: By the 2000s, decades of water mismanagement led to a rapid drop in the groundwater table as well.

Q: However, overexploitation caused the pond to shrink to half its original size and reduced its water storage capacity by 60 per cent.

R: The pond, spread across 2.4 hectares, supported irrigation, sustained the fishing community, met household needs and remained home to a wide variety of flora and fauna.

S: As the pond disappeared, the households relied on groundwater to meet their daily needs.

(a) Q R P S

(b) Q P R S

(c) R Q S P

(d) R Q P S

Correct Answer:(c)

96. S1: While most people are comfortable talking about colour, the concept of luminance – even though it is more fundamental – seems less familiar.

S6: This is something the Impressionist artists were able to master and it gave a shimmering, lively quality to many of their paintings.

P: For example, given two patches of grey, they can easily tell which is lighter.

Q: As the artist and art teacher Josef Albers states, just as a musician should be able to distinguish between a higher tone and a lower tone, an artist should be able to distinguish between higher and lower light intensity between different colours.

R: Artists, however, must learn to distinguish differences in luminance, independent of colour.

S: But given two patches of different colours, it is often difficult to make the same distinction.

(a) P S R Q

(b) P S Q R

(c) R Q S P

(d) Q R S P

Correct Answer:(d)

97. S1: Wooden furniture is durable and long-lasting, reducing the need for frequent replacement.

S6: A still better and sustainable, though slow, way is to plant new trees to maintain the forest cover.

P: Some of these negative impacts are deforestation and the loss of habitat for numerous species of animals.

Q: Deforestation in turn disrupts water-cycles and accelerates the pace of climate change.

R: However, its use causes several negative ecological impacts.

S: One way of reducing the use of wood is to recycle it as much as possible.

(a) R P Q S

(b) Q S P R

(c) S Q R P

(d) P R S Q

Correct Answer:(a)

98. S1: Circadian rhythm is a term used to refer to the physical, mental and behavioural changes an organism experiences over a 24-hour cycle.

S6: Maintaining a good circadian rhythm through appropriate exposure to natural light, consistent sleep schedules and times of eating, and adequate physical exercise during the day can allow an organism to live a healthy life.

P: Prolonged disruption, moreover, can cause long-term damages such as metabolic diseases, cardiovascular problems, and mental health issues.

Q: Light and dark (daytime and night-time) have the biggest influence on these circadian rhythms.

R: Circadian rhythms are also affected by food intake, stress, physical activity, social environment and temperature.

S: When any one or more than one of these cause the circadian rhythm to be disrupted, it can lead to sleep problems, drowsiness and poor focus.

(a) R Q S P

(b) Q R S P

(c) Q R P S

(d) R Q P S

Correct Answer:(b)

99. S1: All the different parts of our eye help us to see.

S6: These electrical signals then travel through the optic nerve to the brain which in turn converts these signals into the images we see.

P: The iris, which is the coloured part of the eye, controls how much light the pupil lets in.

Q: Next, light passes through the lens, the clear inner part of the eye, which focuses this light on the retina.

R: First, light passes through the cornea, the clear front layer of the eye, and enters the eye through an opening called the pupil.

S: When it hits the retina, special cells called photoreceptors convert the light into electrical signals.

(a) R P S Q

(b) R Q P S

(c) R Q S P

(d) R P Q S

Correct Answer:(d)

100. S1: Humans in colder climates first began wearing some form of sturdy foot covering at least 40,000 years ago.

S6: Today, minimalistic barefoot shoes are becoming popular because they allow the wearer to feel the ground beneath their feet while still offering some protection and support.

P: Unfortunately, modern shoes have also had a negative impact on feet due to bad design such as a narrow toe box, difference in heel to toe drop, however slight, and stiff soles.

Q: Earlier skeletons had very robust little toes that could bend and grip surfaces.

R: These gradually evolved to become less substantial than the big toe because shoe-like coverings reduced the mechanical stress on them and made them weaker.

S: The evidence for this comes from the study of changes in the structure of the toe bones of foot skeletons from that time.

(a) S Q R P

(b) Q S R P

(c) Q S P R

(d) P S Q R

Correct Answer:(a)

Directions: In the following items, a pair of words is provided. You are required to select the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

101. Presumptive and Presumptuous

(a) Presumptive means something likely to be true, and Presumptuous means to be disrespectfully bold

(b) Presumptive means to be disrespectfully bold, and Presumptuous means something likely to be true

(c) Presumptive means to exist, and Presumptuous means something very important

(d) Presumptive means something very important, and Presumptuous means to exist

Correct Answer:(a)

102. Tempestuous and Temperamental

(a) Tempestuous means unpredictable behaviour, and Temperamental means displaying violent behaviour

(b) Tempestuous means displaying violent behaviour, and Temperamental means unpredictable behaviour

(c) Tempestuous means transitory, and Temperamental means determined by temperature

(d) Tempestuous means determined by temperature, and Temperamental means transitory

Correct Answer:(b)

103. Voyager and Voyeur

(a) Voyager means a travel writer, and Voyeur means an emotionally vulnerable person

(b) Voyager means an emotionally vulnerable person, and Voyeur means a travel writer

(c) Voyager means a person who enjoys watching the private life of others, and Voyeur means a traveller

(d) Voyager means a traveller, and Voyeur means a person who enjoys watching the private life of others

Correct Answer:(d)

104. Differ and Defer

(a) Differ means to diffuse, and Defer means to be respectful

(b) Differ means to be respectful, and Defer means to diffuse

(c) Differ means to be different from something, and Defer means to delay action

(d) Differ means to delay action, and Defer means to be different from something

Correct Answer:(c)

105. Elegy and Eulogy

(a) Elegy means a mournful poem, and Eulogy means a tribute to the dead

(b) Elegy means a tribute to the dead, and Eulogy means a mournful poem

(c) Elegy means an inscription on a gravestone, and Eulogy means a contemptuous utterance

(d) Elegy means an allegation, and Eulogy means an inscription on the gravestone

Correct Answer:(a)

106. Concord and Concourse

(a) Concord means unity and harmony, and Concourse means the large open space in a building for people to gather

(b) Concord means convergence, and Concourse means to move jointly

(c) Concord means collaboration, and Concourse means goodwill

(d) Concord means to cohere, and Concourse means to unify diverse positions

Correct Answer:(a)

107. Edify and Educe

(a) Edify means to be elated, and Educe means to subtract

(b) Edify means to improve and uplift, and Educe means to extract information

(c) Edify means to enlighten, and Educe means to reduce

(d) Edify means to delight, and Educe means to be tolerant

Correct Answer:(b)

108. Flaunt and Flinch

(a) Flaunt means to be flamboyant, and Flinch means to be impertinent

(b) Flaunt means to strut about, and Flinch means to boast

(c) Flaunt means to display with flamboyance, and Flinch means to shy away

(d) Flaunt means to exhibit, and Flinch means to breach

Correct Answer:(c)

109. Ingenious and Ingenuous

(a) Ingenious means to be resourceful, and Ingenuous means to be rooted

(b) Ingenious means to be artless, and Ingenuous means to be inventive

(c) Ingenious means to be naturally talented, and Ingenuous means to be genuine

(d) Ingenious means to be creative, and Ingenuous means to be naively trusting

Correct Answer:(d)

110. Nefarious and Nebulous

(a) Nefarious means scandalous, and Nebulous means indistinct

(b) Nefarious means destitute, and Nebulous means vague

(c) Nefarious means wicked, and Nebulous means unpleasant

(d) Nefarious means fastidious, and Nebulous means exposed

Correct Answer:(a)

Directions: In the following items a sentence or a phrase is given with a word that is underlined, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

111. As a child she displayed a precocious talent for music.

(a) mildly unobtrusive

(b) unusually advanced

(c) markedly reluctant

(d) somewhat diffident

Correct Answer:(b)

112. He spoke with a tremulous voice.

(a) steady

(b) quivering

(c) sturdy

(d) calm

Correct Answer:(b)

113. These days there is a lot of gratuitous violence on television.

(a) unjustified

(b) gratifying

(c) grating

(d) unqualified

Correct Answer:(a)

114. His incendiary remarks precipitated disaffection among the group.

(a) insensitive

(b) boastful

(c) sequestering

(d) provocative

Correct Answer:(d)

115. Her career as a gymnast has been blighted by the decisions taken by her coach.

(a) shortened

(b) ruined

(c) extended

(d) accelerated

Correct Answer:(d)

116. The office staff were left absolutely nonplussed by the unexpected question posed by the boss.

(a) exacerbated

(b) disaffected

(c) perplexed

(d) petrified

Correct Answer:(c)

117. He had not completed the mandatory training for his promotion to the level of senior manager.

(a) perfunctory

(b) compulsory

(c) recommendatory

(d) introductory

Correct Answer:(b)

118. One ought not to be dogmatic about one's beliefs.

(a) rigid

(b) amenable

(c) deterministic

(d) unassuming

Correct Answer:(a)

119. Guests visiting the professor are inevitably treated to a scrumptious meal.

(a) lavish

(b) sustainable

(c) delectable

(d) abstemious

Correct Answer:(c)

120. The menu for the birthday party comprised only savoury items, which took the gathered children by surprise.

(a) salty

(b) blanched

(c) sugary

(d) spicy

Correct Answer:(a)

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CDS 2 English Answer Key 2026: Exam Details

CDS 2 English was an objective-type paper conducted for 100 marks. Candidates were given 2 hours to attempt the paper, which generally consists of 120 questions testing grammar, vocabulary, comprehension and effective use of English. Important details related to the CDS 2 English paper are provided below.

How to Calculate Marks Using CDS 2 English Answer Key 2026?

Candidates can calculate their estimated CDS 2 English score by comparing their marked responses with the correct answers provided in the answer key. Since the English paper carries 100 marks for 120 questions, each question carries approximately 0.83 marks. For every incorrect response, one-third of the marks assigned to that question is deducted, which is approximately 0.28 marks. No marks are deducted for questions that are left unanswered.

CDS 2 English Estimated Score = Marks obtained for correct answers – Marks deducted for incorrect answers

Example: If a candidate answers 80 questions correctly, 20 incorrectly and leaves 20 unanswered, the estimated score will be approximately (80 × 0.83) – (20 × 0.28) = 60.8 marks. Candidates should use the exact marking scheme while calculating their final estimated score.

CDS 2 English Score Interpretation 2026

The score calculated using the CDS 2 English Answer Key should be treated as an estimated subject-wise score and not as the final qualifying status. Final selection depends on the candidate's combined written examination performance, academy-wise cut-off and subsequent stages of the CDS selection process. Candidates applying for OTA appear for English and General Knowledge, while IMA, INA and AFA candidates appear for English, General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics.

Note: The above score ranges are only for interpreting performance in the English paper. They are not official UPSC qualifying marks or academy-wise cut-offs.

CDS Previous Year Question Papers and Answer Keys

Candidates can compare the CDS 2 English Answer Key 2026 with previous-year papers to understand changes in difficulty level, question types and recurring topics. Solving previous CDS papers also helps improve accuracy and identify common mistakes before future attempts.

CDS 2 English Answer Key 2026 FAQs

QQues: What should a candidate do if an answer in the CDS 2 English solution appears doubtful?

Ques: Why are detailed solutions useful for vocabulary and grammar questions in CDS English?

Ques: Can the CDS 2 English Answer Key alone predict whether a candidate will qualify for SSB?