UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 Question Paper and Answer Key with Detailed Solutions are available here for PDF download. The examination was conducted on October 30, 2026, from 3:00 PM to 5:00 PM.
Download: UPSSSC PET Question Paper 2026 with Answer Key and Detailed Solution
| Question Paper PDF | Answer Key PDF | Detailed Solution |
|---|---|---|
| UPSSSC PET 2026 Question Paper and Answer Key PDF (Oct 30, 2026) (Shift 2) |
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1. In which event did Neeraj Chopra win the gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games ?
(A) Shot Put
(B) Hammer Throw
(C) Javelin Throw
(D) Discus Throw
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
2. Which of the following was the first Indian language to be accorded Classical Language status by the Government of India ?
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Telugu
(C) Kannada
(D) Tamil
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
3. Which of the following pairs of traditional Indian painting styles and their associated regions is correctly matched ?
(A) Kalamkari – Karnataka
(B) Pithora – Maharashtra
(C) Madhubani – Bihar
(D) Patachitra – Assam
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
4. The capital of Russia is __________ and its official currency is __________.
(A) Kazan; Euro
(B) Moscow; Rouble
(C) Vladivostok; Rouble
(D) Saint Petersburg; Euro
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
5. Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution” ?
(A) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
6. Which of the following UNESCO World Heritage Sites is not located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Ajanta Caves
(B) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
(C) Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi
(D) Khajuraho Temples
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
7. Who among the following was the founder of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) ?
(A) Prof. U.R. Rao
(B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(C) Dr. Satish Dhawan
(D) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
8. In the State Emblem of India, which of the following animals appears to the right of the Dharma Chakra from the observer’s perspective ?
(A) Horse
(B) Bull
(C) Lion
(D) Elephant
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
9. Who was the first Indian musician to receive the Ramon Magsaysay Award ?
(A) M.S. Subbulakshmi
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Bhimsen Joshi
(D) Balamuralikrishna
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
10. Which of the following pairs of important days and their dates is not correctly matched ?
(A) International Day of Forests – March 21
(B) World Wildlife Day – March 3
(C) National Education Day – November 11
(D) World Food Day – October 14
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
11. The Siachen Glacier is located in which mountain range ?
(A) Pir Panjal Range
(B) Zanskar Range
(C) Karakoram Range
(D) Shiwalik Range
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
12. At which of the following confluences do the rivers Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet to form the river Ganga ?
(A) Rudraprayag
(B) Vishnuprayag
(C) Devprayag
(D) Karnaprayag
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
| List I (Ramsar Site) |
List II (Location) |
| a. Gokul Jalashay | i. Bharatpur, Rajasthan |
| b. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary | ii. Ahmedabad, Gujarat |
| c. Patna Bird Sanctuary | iii. Buxar, Bihar |
| d. Keoladeo National Park | iv. Etah, Uttar Pradesh |
Code :
(A) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
14. Which of the following is the largest island in the world ?
(A) Borneo
(B) Madagascar
(C) Greenland
(D) New Guinea
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
15. Which Indian state shares international boundaries with both Bangladesh and Myanmar ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Mizoram
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tripura
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
16. According to Snell’s law, the refractive index of a medium with respect to air is defined as the following :
(A) \( \frac{i}{r} \)
(B) \( \frac{\sin i}{\sin r} \)
(C) \( \frac{r}{i} \)
(D) \( \frac{\sin r}{\sin i} \)
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
17. The monomer unit of proteins is :
(A) Nucleotide
(B) Fatty acid
(C) Glucose
(D) Amino acid
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
18. The junction through which nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another is called :
(A) Myelin sheath
(B) Dendrite
(C) Synapse
(D) Axon
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
19. Which element has the highest electronegativity in the periodic table ?
(A) Fluorine
(B) Oxygen
(C) Chlorine
(D) Nitrogen
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
20. The numerous finger-like projections present on the inner lining of the small intestine are called :
(A) Villi
(B) Alveoli
(C) Cilia
(D) Flagella
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
21. In which year was the ‘Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code’ enacted by the Parliament of India ?
(A) 2018
(B) 2019
(C) 2020
(D) 2021
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
22. How many commercial banks were nationalised in India in 1969 ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 12
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
23. Who was the Finance Minister of India during the introduction of the economic reforms in 1991 ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Yashwant Sinha
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
24. Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) :
1. RBI was established in 1935.
2. RBI was established on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
3. RBI was nationalised in 1959.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
25. Which high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety was dubbed “Miracle Rice” during the Green Revolution ?
(A) IR20
(B) IR8
(C) Jaya
(D) Padma
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
26. A product is marked 20% above its cost price and sold at a 10% discount. If the profit earned is ₹ 400, what is the cost price of the product ?
(A) ₹ 5,500
(B) ₹ 4,800
(C) ₹ 4,000
(D) ₹ 5,000
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
27. A fraction is equivalent to 0·375. If 5 is added to its numerator and 8 to its denominator, the resulting fraction is \( \frac{1}{2} \). What is the original fraction ?
(A) \( \frac{4}{9} \)
(B) \( \frac{9}{24} \)
(C) \( \frac{3}{8} \)
(D) \( \frac{5}{9} \)
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
28. In an election between two candidates, 10% of the total votes polled were declared invalid. The winning candidate secured 60% of the total valid votes and won by a margin of 3600 votes. What was the total number of votes polled ?
(A) 18000
(B) 22000
(C) 20000
(D) 24000
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
29. If \( 2^{x} \times 3^{y} = 12 \) and \( 2^{y} \times 3^{x} = 18 \), then the value of x + y is :
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
30. Section A has 25 students with an average score of 76. Section B has 35 students with an average score of 64. The combined average score of all students is :
(A) 67
(B) 75
(C) 72
(D) 68
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (E)
31. If Aman is 5 cm taller than Bipin; Bipin is 3 cm taller than Chetan, and Chetan is 4 cm taller than Deepak, who is the shortest among them ?
(A) Chetan
(B) Deepak
(C) Aman
(D) Bipin
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
32. In a class of 40 students, Sahil is ranked 12th from the top. If Manav is 5 ranks below Sahil, what is Manav’s rank from the bottom ?
(A) 28th
(B) 22nd
(C) 24th
(D) 26th
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
33. In a certain code language, if ‘SCHOOL’ is coded as ‘MPPIDT’, how will ‘MARKET’ be coded in the same code language ?
(A) UFKSAM
(B) UFLSAM
(C) UFKSBN
(D) UFLSBN
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
34. If ‘X @ Y’ means X is the son of Y, ‘X # Y’ means X is the wife of Y, and ‘X % Y’ means X is the brother of Y, and if D is male, what is the relationship of A with D in the expression A @ B # C % D ?
(A) A is the brother of D
(B) A is the son of D
(C) A is the grandson of D
(D) A is the nephew of D
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
35. If August 15, 2023 was a Tuesday, what day of the week was August 15, 2024 ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
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UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 exam analysis covers the overall difficulty level, section-wise question distribution, important topics and expected good attempts. The examination is being held in offline mode for two hours. The detailed Shift 2 review can be assessed after the examination concludes, based on the available question paper and candidates' feedback.
Key details of the October 30 Shift 2 examination:
Candidates can also review the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 Answer Key with Solutions to verify their attempted answers when the solutions become available.
The UPSSSC PET 2026 syllabus covers General Studies, Current Affairs, Reasoning, General Hindi and Data Interpretation. The topics below are useful for reviewing the October 30 Shift 2 question paper and preparing for the remaining examination shifts. They are syllabus-based revision topics rather than a confirmed list of questions asked in Shift 2.
Important areas include the Indus Valley Civilisation, Vedic Period, Buddhism, Jainism, Mauryan Empire, Gupta Empire and important historical developments. Indian National Movement topics include the Revolt of 1857, formation of the Indian National Congress, Swadeshi Movement, Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement and major freedom fighters.
The Indian Polity syllabus covers the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy, Parliament, constitutional amendments and Panchayati Raj institutions. Important economic topics include national income, banking, inflation, monetary policy, economic planning, government schemes and major economic reforms.
General Science includes basic Physics, Chemistry and Biology concepts, such as human physiology, diseases, nutrition, chemical reactions, electricity and light. Current Affairs preparation covers national and international events, government initiatives, sports awards, important appointments, science and technology developments and significant events of 2025 and 2026.
Reasoning topics include coding-decoding, number series, blood relations, ranking, classification, direction sense and logical relationships. Data Interpretation involves tables, graphs, pie charts, percentages, averages and ratios. These sections test analytical ability, numerical accuracy and time management.
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| UPSSSC PET Eligibility | UPSSSC PET Syllabus | UPSSSC PET Exam Dates |
| UPSSSC PET Exam Pattern | UPSSSC PET Best Books | UPSSSC PET Previous Year Paper |
Ques: How many questions are included in UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2?
Ans: The examination consists of 100 multiple-choice questions carrying 100 marks. Candidates receive one mark for each correct answer, while 0.25 marks are deducted for every incorrect answer.
Ques: How can candidates calculate their expected UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 marks?
Ans: Candidates can calculate their estimated marks using the formula: Total Marks = Number of Correct Answers - (Number of Incorrect Answers x 0.25). Unattempted questions do not attract negative marking.
Ques: Is the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 answer key official?
Ans: Answer keys prepared by educational platforms or subject experts are unofficial unless issued by UPSSSC. Candidates should refer to the commission's official answer key for authoritative verification of their responses.
Ques: Which topics should candidates revise after reviewing the October 30 Shift 2 paper?
Ans: Candidates should identify the topics they found difficult and revise the relevant syllabus areas. History, Indian Polity, Current Affairs, General Science, Reasoning, General Hindi and Data Interpretation are important areas for PET preparation.
Ques: Can candidates appearing on November 1 use the October 30 Shift 2 question paper for preparation?
Ans: Yes. Candidates appearing on November 1, 2026, can use the October 30 question paper and answer key to practise the question types, understand the difficulty level and improve their time management. They can also review the October 25 Shift 2 Answer Key with Solutions for additional practice.
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