UPSSSC PET 2026 Answer Key with Solutions PDF (Oct 30, 2026) (Shift 2)

UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 Answer Key with Detailed Solutions PDF is available here to download and check correct answers. UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 examination was conducted from 3:00 PM to 5:00 PM. Candidates can download the answer key, verify their responses, check detailed explanations and calculate their expected scores out of 100 marks.

Download: UPSSSC PET Question Paper 2026 with Answer Key and Detailed Solution

UPSSSC PET 2026 Answer Key PDF with Detailed Solution (Oct 30, 2026) (Shift 2)

1. In which event did Neeraj Chopra win the gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games ?

(A) Shot Put

(B) Hammer Throw

(C) Javelin Throw

(D) Discus Throw

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following was the first Indian language to be accorded Classical Language status by the Government of India ?

(A) Sanskrit

(B) Telugu

(C) Kannada

(D) Tamil

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

3. Which of the following pairs of traditional Indian painting styles and their associated regions is correctly matched ?

(A) Kalamkari – Karnataka

(B) Pithora – Maharashtra

(C) Madhubani – Bihar

(D) Patachitra – Assam

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

4. The capital of Russia is __________ and its official currency is __________.

(A) Kazan; Euro

(B) Moscow; Rouble

(C) Vladivostok; Rouble

(D) Saint Petersburg; Euro

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

5. Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution” ?

(A) Right to Constitutional Remedies

(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

(C) Right to Equality

(D) Right to Freedom of Religion

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following UNESCO World Heritage Sites is not located in Madhya Pradesh ?

(A) Ajanta Caves

(B) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka

(C) Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi

(D) Khajuraho Temples

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

7. Who among the following was the founder of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) ?

(A) Prof. U.R. Rao

(B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

(C) Dr. Satish Dhawan

(D) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

8. In the State Emblem of India, which of the following animals appears to the right of the Dharma Chakra from the observer’s perspective ?

(A) Horse

(B) Bull

(C) Lion

(D) Elephant

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

9. Who was the first Indian musician to receive the Ramon Magsaysay Award ?

(A) M.S. Subbulakshmi

(B) Lata Mangeshkar

(C) Bhimsen Joshi

(D) Balamuralikrishna

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following pairs of important days and their dates is not correctly matched ?

(A) International Day of Forests – March 21

(B) World Wildlife Day – March 3

(C) National Education Day – November 11

(D) World Food Day – October 14

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

11. The Siachen Glacier is located in which mountain range ?

(A) Pir Panjal Range

(B) Zanskar Range

(C) Karakoram Range

(D) Shiwalik Range

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

12. At which of the following confluences do the rivers Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet to form the river Ganga ?

(A) Rudraprayag

(B) Vishnuprayag

(C) Devprayag

(D) Karnaprayag

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Ramsar Site)	List II (Location)
a. Gokul Jalashay	i. Bharatpur, Rajasthan
b. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary	ii. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
c. Patna Bird Sanctuary	iii. Buxar, Bihar
d. Keoladeo National Park	iv. Etah, Uttar Pradesh

Code :

(A) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(C) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following is the largest island in the world ?

(A) Borneo

(B) Madagascar

(C) Greenland

(D) New Guinea

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

15. Which Indian state shares international boundaries with both Bangladesh and Myanmar ?

(A) Manipur

(B) Mizoram

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Tripura

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

16. According to Snell’s law, the refractive index of a medium with respect to air is defined as the following :

(A) \( \frac{i}{r} \)

(B) \( \frac{\sin i}{\sin r} \)

(C) \( \frac{r}{i} \)

(D) \( \frac{\sin r}{\sin i} \)

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

17. The monomer unit of proteins is :

(A) Nucleotide

(B) Fatty acid

(C) Glucose

(D) Amino acid

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

18. The junction through which nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another is called :

(A) Myelin sheath

(B) Dendrite

(C) Synapse

(D) Axon

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

19. Which element has the highest electronegativity in the periodic table ?

(A) Fluorine

(B) Oxygen

(C) Chlorine

(D) Nitrogen

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

20. The numerous finger-like projections present on the inner lining of the small intestine are called :

(A) Villi

(B) Alveoli

(C) Cilia

(D) Flagella

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

21. In which year was the ‘Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code’ enacted by the Parliament of India ?

(A) 2018

(B) 2019

(C) 2020

(D) 2021

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

22. How many commercial banks were nationalised in India in 1969 ?

(A) 10

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 12

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

23. Who was the Finance Minister of India during the introduction of the economic reforms in 1991 ?

(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(B) P.V. Narasimha Rao

(C) Pranab Mukherjee

(D) Yashwant Sinha

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)

24. Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) :
1. RBI was established in 1935.
2. RBI was established on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
3. RBI was nationalised in 1959.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

25. Which high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety was dubbed “Miracle Rice” during the Green Revolution ?

(A) IR20

(B) IR8

(C) Jaya

(D) Padma

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

26. A product is marked 20% above its cost price and sold at a 10% discount. If the profit earned is ₹ 400, what is the cost price of the product ?

(A) ₹ 5,500

(B) ₹ 4,800

(C) ₹ 4,000

(D) ₹ 5,000

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

27. A fraction is equivalent to 0·375. If 5 is added to its numerator and 8 to its denominator, the resulting fraction is \( \frac{1}{2} \). What is the original fraction ?

(A) \( \frac{4}{9} \)

(B) \( \frac{9}{24} \)

(C) \( \frac{3}{8} \)

(D) \( \frac{5}{9} \)

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

28. In an election between two candidates, 10% of the total votes polled were declared invalid. The winning candidate secured 60% of the total valid votes and won by a margin of 3600 votes. What was the total number of votes polled ?

(A) 18000

(B) 22000

(C) 20000

(D) 24000

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

29. If \( 2^{x} \times 3^{y} = 12 \) and \( 2^{y} \times 3^{x} = 18 \), then the value of x + y is :

(A) 2

(B) 5

(C) 3

(D) 6

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

30. Section A has 25 students with an average score of 76. Section B has 35 students with an average score of 64. The combined average score of all students is :

(A) 67

(B) 75

(C) 72

(D) 68

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (E)

31. If Aman is 5 cm taller than Bipin; Bipin is 3 cm taller than Chetan, and Chetan is 4 cm taller than Deepak, who is the shortest among them ?

(A) Chetan

(B) Deepak

(C) Aman

(D) Bipin

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

32. In a class of 40 students, Sahil is ranked 12^th from the top. If Manav is 5 ranks below Sahil, what is Manav’s rank from the bottom ?

(A) 28^th

(B) 22^nd

(C) 24^th

(D) 26^th

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)

33. In a certain code language, if ‘SCHOOL’ is coded as ‘MPPIDT’, how will ‘MARKET’ be coded in the same code language ?

(A) UFKSAM

(B) UFLSAM

(C) UFKSBN

(D) UFLSBN

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

34. If ‘X @ Y’ means X is the son of Y, ‘X # Y’ means X is the wife of Y, and ‘X % Y’ means X is the brother of Y, and if D is male, what is the relationship of A with D in the expression A @ B # C % D ?

(A) A is the brother of D

(B) A is the son of D

(C) A is the grandson of D

(D) A is the nephew of D

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)

35. If August 15, 2023 was a Tuesday, what day of the week was August 15, 2024 ?

(A) Wednesday

(B) Thursday

(C) Friday

(D) Saturday

(E) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)

Never Miss a Sarkari Job Alert! Get instant notifications and exam news right inside your chat.  Click here to join Prepp on WhatsApp

Boost Your Preparation with Free Resources! Get daily quizzes, current affairs PDFs, and study notes directly on Telegram.  Click here to join Prepp on Telegram

What Can Candidates Check in the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 Detailed Solutions?

The UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 detailed solutions help candidates understand the correct answers and the methods used to solve different types of questions. Candidates can compare their marked responses with the answer key and identify topics that require improvement.

UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 Marks Calculation

Candidates who appeared in the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 examination can calculate their expected marks using the answer key and marking scheme. The examination consisted of 100 multiple-choice questions carrying 100 marks. Each correct answer carries one mark, while 0.25 marks are deducted for every incorrect response. No marks are deducted for unanswered questions.

Score Formula: Correct Responses − (Incorrect Responses × 0.25)

The table below explains how candidates can estimate their marks based on the number of correct and incorrect responses.

The marks mentioned above are illustrative and do not indicate actual candidate scores or cutoff marks. Candidates should compare their responses with the official final answer key for a more reliable score assessment.

UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 Answer Key Objection Process

Candidates who identify discrepancies in the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 provisional official answer key may be able to raise objections if UPSSSC provides an objection facility. The commission will announce the objection submission dates, applicable fees and instructions through its official website.

Steps to challenge the UPSSSC PET 2026 provisional answer key, if the objection facility is provided:

1. Visit the official UPSSSC website at upsssc.gov.in.
2. Find the UPSSSC PET 2026 provisional answer key objection notice.
3. Open the objection link and log in using the required credentials, if applicable.
4. Select the October 30 Shift 2 question number and answer to be challenged.
5. Provide supporting documents or references to justify the objection.
6. Pay the applicable objection fee, if required, and submit the challenge before the deadline.

UPSSSC will review eligible objections according to its notified procedure and may release a revised or final answer key. Candidates should regularly check the official website for announcements regarding objections, final answer keys and results.

UPSSSC PET October 25 Answer Keys for Additional Practice

Candidates who appeared in the October 30 Shift 2 examination can compare the questions and solutions with the earlier October 25 shifts. Reviewing these solved papers helps candidates understand the question patterns, identify repeated syllabus areas and practise important concepts for future examinations.

• UPSSSC PET October 25 Shift 1 Answer Key with Solutions PDF
• UPSSSC PET October 25 Shift 2 Answer Key with Solutions PDF

UPSSSC PET 2026 October 30 Shift 2 Answer Key FAQs

Ques: Where can candidates download the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 Answer Key PDF?

Ques: What was the timing of UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 examination?

Ques: Can candidates challenge incorrect answers in the October 30 Shift 2 answer key?

Ques: Is the UPSSSC PET October 30 Shift 2 answer key different from Shift 1?

Ques: How many marks will be deducted for 20 incorrect answers in UPSSSC PET 2026?