UPSSSC PET 2026 November 1 Shift 1 Answer Key PDF is available for download after the examination. The Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Services Selection Commission (UPSSSC) conducted the morning shift on November 1, 2026, from 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The paper consisted of 100 questions carrying 100 marks, with an estimated Moderate difficulty level.
Click Here to Download: UPSSSC PET Answer Key 2026
| Question Paper PDF | Answer Key PDF | Detailed Solution |
|---|---|---|
| UPSSSC PET 2026 Question Paper PDF (Nov 01, 2026) (Shift 1) |
Available Soon | Attempt Now |
1. In 2025, which two Indian cities were recognised as the country's first Ramsar-accredited Wetland Cities ?
1. Udaipur and Bhopal
2. Bhopal and Srinagar
3. Srinagar and Kochi
4. Indore and Udaipur
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2. Which book, authored by Surendra Kumar Pachauri, was released by the Vice-President of India in January 2026 ?
1. Chalice of Ambrosia : Ram Janmabhoomi – Challenge and Response
2. Sing, Dance and Lead
3. The Library Man of India
4. The Sage Who Reimagined Hinduism
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3. Which ancient Buddhist site in India was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2026 ?
1. Sanchi
2. Nalanda
3. Sarnath
4. Ajanta Caves
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4. The 'Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore' campaign, held in December 2025, focused on :
1. Capacity building of Panchayati Raj Institutions
2. Preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans
3. Public grievance redressal and improving service delivery
4. Digital delivery of Panchayat services
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5. India's first overseas defence manufacturing facility became operational in 2025 in which country ?
1. Morocco
2. Egypt
3. South Africa
4. Algeria
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6. Which country held the Chairmanship of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) for the year 2025 ?
1. Indonesia
2. Vietnam
3. Malaysia
4. Thailand
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7. As per the announcement by the Chhattisgarh Government/district administration in 2025, which district was declared India's first child marriage-free district ?
1. Balod
2. Surajpur
3. Rajnandgaon
4. Durg
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8. Which veteran Indian actor was conferred the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2023 at the 71st National Film Awards ceremony held in September 2025 ?
1. Mohanlal
2. Kamal Haasan
3. Rajinikanth
4. Mammootty
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9. What is the name of the world's highest railway arch bridge inaugurated in Jammu & Kashmir in 2025 ?
1. Anji Bridge
2. Bogibeel Bridge
3. Pamban Bridge
4. Chenab Bridge
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10. Where were the 2025 World Athletics Championships held ?
1. Paris
2. Beijing
3. London
4. Tokyo
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Direction : Study the following table and answer the questions (11 to 15) that follow :
Electricity consumption (in MWh) in three quarters (Q1, Q2 and Q3) by five industrial zones (U, W, X, Y and Z)
| Industrial Zone | Electricity Consumption (in MWh) | Total | ||
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Q1 | Q2 | Q3 | ||
| U | 120 | 150 | 180 | 450 |
| W | 180 | 210 | 240 | 630 |
| X | 160 | 180 | 220 | 560 |
| Y | 240 | 240 | 300 | 780 |
| Z | 200 | 220 | 260 | 680 |
| Total | 900 | 1000 | 1200 | 3100 |
11. By what percentage did the electricity consumption of Zone U increase from Q1 to Q3 ?
1. 60%
2. 70%
3. 50%
4. 40%
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12. What is the ratio of the combined electricity consumption of Zones Y and Z in Q1 to the combined electricity consumption of Zones U and X in Q3 ?
1. 12:13
2. 17:15
3. 11:10
4. 15:13
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13. What is the difference between the average electricity consumption per zone in Q3 and the average electricity consumption per zone in Q1 ?
1. 40 MWh
2. 70 MWh
3. 50 MWh
4. 60 MWh
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14. If 40 MWh of Zone Y's Q3 electricity consumption is reassigned to Zone X, while the total Q3 consumption remains unchanged, what would be the ratio of the revised Q3 consumption of Zone X to the revised Q3 consumption of Zone Y ?
1. 1:01
2. 3:04
3. 2:03
4. 2:01
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15. Based on the total electricity consumption across Q1, Q2 and Q3, which of the following zones recorded the second-highest consumption ?
1. Zone X
2. Zone Z
3. Zone W
4. Zone Y
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Direction : Study the following pie chart and answer the questions (16 to 20) that follow :
Distribution of fresh fruit stock in a supermarket
Total stock of fresh fruits = 900 kg
[Pie chart — central angles: Grapes = 40°; Apples = 130°; Oranges = 80°; Bananas = 110°]
16. If Apples are priced at ₹ 2 per kg and Grapes at ₹ 4·50 per kg, what will be the total amount received if the entire stock of both Apples and Grapes is sold ?
1. ₹ 1,250
2. ₹ 1,100
3. ₹ 1,050
4. ₹ 1,200
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17. The stock of Apples is what percentage greater than the stock of Oranges ?
1. 50·5%
2. 60·5%
3. 65·5%
4. 62·5%
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18. A local bakery purchases 25 kg of Apples, 75 kg of Bananas and 80 kg of Oranges from the supermarket. If the stock of Grapes remains unchanged, what will be the revised central angle representing Bananas ?
1. 100°
2. 110°
3. 90°
4. 105°
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19. What is the ratio of the combined weight of Apples and Oranges to the combined weight of Bananas and Grapes ?
1. 7:04
2. 3:01
3. 3:02
4. 6:05
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20. If 20% of the Apples and 40% of the Bananas are sold in the morning, what is the total weight of fruits sold ?
1. 195 kg
2. 165 kg
3. 175 kg
4. 180 kg
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21. Who among the following composed the Harshacharita, the Sanskrit biography of Harshavardhana, the ruler of Kannauj ?
1. Banabhatta
2. Kalidasa
3. Harishena
4. Vishakhadatta
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22. Who founded the Mamluk (Slave) Dynasty, the first ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate ?
1. Taj-ud-Din Yildiz
2. Shams-ud-Din Iltutmish
3. Nasir-ud-Din Qabacha
4. Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
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23. Which of the following cities served as the first capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha ?
1. Vaishali
2. Rajagriha
3. Champa
4. Pataliputra
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24. In which Pitaka of the Tripitaka are the discourses and teachings of the Buddha contained ?
1. Sutta Pitaka
2. Vinaya Pitaka
3. Dharani Pitaka
4. Abhidhamma Pitaka
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25. Which Chola emperor commissioned the construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram ?
1. Rajaraja I
2. Kulothunga I
3. Rajendra I
4. Rajaraja II
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26. The income of X is 20% more than that of Y, and the income of Y is 10% more than that of Z. If X's income is ₹ 26,400, find the income of Z.
1. ₹ 18,480
2. ₹ 20,000
3. ₹ 24,000
4. ₹ 22,000
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27. Find the value of 'x' that satisfies the equation :
√(136 + √(57 + √49)) + √x = 19
1. 343
2. 14
3. 49
4. 7
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28. If 60% of (A – B) is equal to 36% of (A + B), then B is what percent of A ?
1. 30%
2. 25%
3. 35%
4. 20%
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29. The average of four numbers is 12·5. If each number is increased by 2·5, then the new average will be :
1. 14·5
2. 12·5
3. 13·0
4. 15·5
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30. A boat takes 7 hours to travel downstream and 9 hours to travel upstream between two places on a river. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/h, what is the distance between the two places ?
1. 148 km
2. 120 km
3. 128 km
4. 126 km
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Candidates can estimate their scores by comparing their responses with the available November 1 Shift 1 answer key. Each correct answer carries one mark, while 0.25 marks are deducted for an incorrect response. For example, a candidate with 80 correct and 10 incorrect answers will obtain an estimated raw score of 77.5 marks. Based on previous examination trends, the overall difficulty level is provisionally estimated to be Moderate, with approximately 70-76 good attempts. The calculated score may change after the official final answer key and normalization process.
| Relevant Links | ||
|---|---|---|
| UPSSSC PET Eligibility | UPSSSC PET Syllabus | UPSSSC PET Exam Dates |
| UPSSSC PET Exam Pattern | UPSSSC PET Best Books | UPSSSC PET Previous Year Paper |
Ques: Does the November 1 Shift 1 answer key contain answers to all 100 questions?
Ans: The available answer key provides correct options for all 100 questions. Detailed solutions will also help explain numerical and reasoning-based answers.
Ques: What if a candidate finds two correct options for a question in the official answer key?
Ans: Candidates can raise an objection during the official challenge window and submit supporting evidence. UPSSSC will decide whether the answer requires revision.
Ques: Is the UPSSSC PET November 1 Shift 1 answer key sufficient to determine the qualifying status?
Ans: No, the answer key only helps estimate raw marks. The final score and eligibility for subsequent recruitment stages will depend on the official evaluation and applicable recruitment criteria.
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