Why was there a sudden spurt in famines in colonial India since the mid-eighteenth century? Give reasons.
The sudden and devastating increase in famines in colonial India wasn't just a failure of monsoons; it was largely a consequence of British economic and administrative policies that dismantled traditional coping mechanisms.
A primary reason was the emphasis on cash crops. The British compelled farmers to cultivate crops like indigo, cotton, and opium for export, often at the expense of food grains. This reduced the local food supply and made regions vulnerable to shortages.
The new land revenue systems, like the Permanent Settlement, were rigid and demanded high taxes in cash, regardless of the harvest. To pay taxes, farmers often had to sell their produce immediately, leaving them with no surplus for lean years.
Furthermore, the British policy of laissez-faire meant they were reluctant to intervene with relief measures, believing the market would self-correct. This ideological stance led to catastrophic delays in providing aid. The development of railways, ironically, facilitated the export of grain from famine-stricken areas to ports, rather than its distribution to the needy. This combination of factors turned droughts into man-made famines.
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Important Questions from GS1
How far is it correct to say that the First World War was fought essentially for the preservation of the balance of power?
How far was the Industrial Revolution in England responsible for the decline of handicrafts and cottage industries in India?
The groundwater potential of the Gangetic valley is on a serious decline. How may it affect the food security of India?
What are aurora australis and aurora borealis? How are these triggered?
What is a twister? Why are the majority of twisters observed in areas around the Gulf of Mexico?
