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Question

Which one of the following statements is true regarding genital tuberculosis?

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CMS 2026 Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and PSM Question Paper (02-Aug-2026)
The correct answer is

The most common mode of spread from primary to genital organs is haematogenous.

The correct answer is that spread from the primary focus is haematogenous. Female genital tuberculosis is almost always secondary to a primary focus, most often pulmonary, with bacilli reaching the genital tract via the bloodstream usually within a year of primary infection but staying latent for 10–20 years. The rich submucosal vascular plexus of the tube explains why the fallopian tube is involved in 90–100% of cases, seeding the endometrium (50–60%), ovary (20–30%) and cervix thereafter. Lymphatic and direct contiguous spread are far less common.

The ovary option is wrong — the tube, not the ovary, is the commonest site. The tobacco-pouch option is wrong because that sign describes a thickened tube with an everted fimbrial end and a patulous, open abdominal ostium; a closed, clubbed ostium is the pattern of pyogenic salpingitis. The last option misquotes figures: genital involvement follows pulmonary tuberculosis in about 5–10% of cases, not 1–2%.

Key point: Genital TB equals haematogenous spread with the tube affected first and most often, presenting as infertility with hypomenorrhoea; HSG may show a beaded or rigid pipe-stem tube.

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  1. Which of the following are characteristics of Trichomonas vaginitis?
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  2. Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:
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    1. Bartholin's abscess may be the likely diagnosis
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    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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