The drug of choice for treatment of chlamydial cervicitis is
Azithromycin
The correct answer is Azithromycin. Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D–K are obligate intracellular bacteria infecting endocervical columnar epithelium, producing mucopurulent cervicitis with a friable cervix — often silent, and a major cause of PID and tubal infertility. Effective therapy needs high intracellular drug levels: azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose is the drug of choice in Indian and NACO syndromic protocols, since directly observed single-dose therapy guarantees compliance. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days is the alternative, but azithromycin remains preferred in pregnancy, where doxycycline is contraindicated.
Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole for anaerobes, Trichomonas and bacterial vaginosis, with no anti-chlamydial activity. Secnidazole is a long-acting nitroimidazole used single-dose for bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis — again useless here. Ampicillin, a beta-lactam acting on cell-wall synthesis, penetrates cells poorly and cannot eradicate an intracellular organism lacking a conventional peptidoglycan target.
Key point: Chlamydial cervicitis equals azithromycin 1 g single dose (or doxycycline for 7 days); always treat the partner and add cefixime for likely coexistent gonorrhoea.
Similar Questions
Kit 6 used in syndromic management of STI/RTI includes which one of the following drug combinations?
Which one of the following statements is true regarding genital tuberculosis?
Consider the following diagnostic criteria for acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID):
1. Lower abdominal tenderness
2. Oral temperature >38 °C
3. Adnexal tenderness
4. Cervical motion tenderness
Which of the above are included in the minimum criteria for diagnosis of PID?
Important Questions from Infections in Genital Tract
Which of the following are characteristics of Trichomonas vaginitis?
1. Presence of greenish frothy discharge
2. Vaginal pH > 4.5
3. Presence of clue cells in microscopic examination
4. Strawberry spots on the vaginal mucosa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:
- A 30 year old lady, P2L2 presents with painful unilateral swelling in vulva for 3 days. Which
of the following statements are true regarding the above case?
1. Bartholin's abscess may be the likely diagnosis
2. It is to be managed by marsupialisation
3. Gonococcus is the most common pathogenic organism
Select the correct answer using the code given below: - Which of the following is NOT a characteristic clinical feature of Bacterial Vaginosis?
A 22 year old woman comes with complaints of pain and discomfort in vaginal region. On examination there is unilateral tender swelling in the posterior half of labium minus, overlying skin is red and edematous. What is the most probable diagnosis?
