of the following statements are true regarding the above case?
1. Bartholin's abscess may be the likely diagnosis
2. It is to be managed by marsupialisation
3. Gonococcus is the most common pathogenic organism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution Breakdown
The question presents a case of a 30-year-old woman with a painful unilateral swelling in the vulva lasting 3 days. This clinical picture needs to be evaluated against the provided statements regarding diagnosis, management, and causative organisms.
Statement Analysis
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Bartholin's Abscess Likely Diagnosis
A Bartholin's abscess is a common condition presenting as a painful, unilateral lump or swelling in the vulvar region due to infection and pus formation within a Bartholin's gland. The patient's symptoms directly align with this diagnosis, making statement 1 true.
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Management by Marsupialisation
While marsupialisation is a treatment for Bartholin's cysts or recurrent abscesses, it's not the primary management for an initial, acute abscess. Initial treatment typically involves incision and drainage (I&D) to release the pus and relieve pain, often combined with antibiotics. Therefore, statement 2 is false.
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Gonococcus as Common Pathogen
Infections of the Bartholin's glands can be caused by various bacteria. Gonococcus (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) is a well-recognized and significant pathogen responsible for many cases of Bartholin's abscesses, particularly related to sexually transmitted infections. Thus, statement 3 is considered true.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation, statements 1 and 3 accurately describe the clinical scenario. Therefore, the correct option is the one that includes only these two statements.
Important Questions from Infections in Genital Tract
- Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:
- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic clinical feature of Bacterial Vaginosis?
A 22 year old woman comes with complaints of pain and discomfort in vaginal region. On examination there is unilateral tender swelling in the posterior half of labium minus, overlying skin is red and edematous. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- Which of the following are risk factors for developing pelvic inflammatory disease in females ?
1. Use of oral contraception pills
2. Multiple sexual partners
3. Lower socioeconomic status
4. Genetic predisposition
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Which of the following criteria are required to be fulfilled for hospitali- zation in a case of pelvic inflammatory disease?
1. Coexisting pregnancy
2. Mild fever and pain responding well to antibiotics
3. Suspected tubo-ovarian abscess
4. Coexistent HIV infection
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
