All Exams Test series for 1 year @ ₹349 only
Question

A 3-year-old boy is brought with barking cough and noisy breathing of 2 days' duration. He has a history of running nose and some fever for the preceding 3-4 days. Examination reveals respiratory rate of 40 per min, subcostal retractions and stridor. The most important step in the management is:

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CMS 2026 Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and PSM Question Paper (02-Aug-2026)
The correct answer is

Nebulized adrenaline

This clinical picture (barking cough, stridor at rest, subcostal retractions) is classic croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) with moderate-severe severity. The most important immediate step is nebulized (racemic) adrenaline, which rapidly reduces airway mucosal edema, along with systemic corticosteroids; salbutamol has no role since bronchospasm is not the pathology.

Was this answer helpful?

Important Questions from Fever

  1. A previously well 2 year old boy presents with a brief generalized seizure. There is no past or family history of seizures. On examination, child is alert, active, febrile with axillary temperature of $39.4^\circ C$. Except for bilateral tonsillar enlargement and congestion, systemic examination is normal. Management at this time may include:

    1. Immediate reduction of body temperature
    2. Intravenous diazepam and phenytoin, followed by a lumbar puncture
    3. Institution of phenytoin for maintenance therapy for at least one year
    4. Rectal diazepam every 8 hourly for 2-3 days to reduce the risk of recurrence

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Need Expert Advice?

Start Your Preparation with Prepp Mobile App

Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Prepp Mobile App