Consider the following for the next three (03) items that follow : Let \(I_1=\int_0^\pi \frac{x}{1+\cos ^2 x} d x\) and \(I_2=\int_0^\pi \frac{1}{1+\sin ^2 x} d x \)
What is the value of I2 ?
The problem asks us to find the value of the definite integral \(I_2\), which is given by:
\(I_2=\int_0^\pi \frac{1}{1+\sin ^2 x} d x\)
To evaluate \(I_2\), we can use properties of definite integrals.
The integrand is \(f(x) = \frac{1}{1+\sin^2 x}\). Let's check the property \(f(\pi - x)\).
\(f(\pi - x) = \frac{1}{1+\sin^2 (\pi - x)}\)
Since \(\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x\), we have:
\(f(\pi - x) = \frac{1}{1+(\sin x)^2} = \frac{1}{1+\sin^2 x} = f(x)\)
Since \(f(\pi - x) = f(x)\), we can use the property \(\int_0^{2a} f(x) dx = 2 \int_0^a f(x) dx\), where \(2a = \pi\), so \(a = \pi/2\).
Therefore, \(I_2\) can be written as:
\(I_2 = 2 \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1}{1+\sin ^2 x} d x\)
Now, let's evaluate the integral \(J = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1}{1+\sin ^2 x} d x\).
We can divide the numerator and denominator by \(\cos^2 x\):
\(J = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\frac{1}{\cos^2 x}}{\frac{1+\sin^2 x}{\cos^2 x}} d x = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x}{\frac{1}{\cos^2 x} + \frac{\sin^2 x}{\cos^2 x}} d x\)
\(J = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x}{\sec^2 x + \tan^2 x} d x\)
Substitute \(\sec^2 x = 1 + \tan^2 x\) in the denominator:
\(J = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x}{(1+\tan^2 x) + \tan^2 x} d x = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x}{1 + 2\tan^2 x} d x\)
Now, let's use the substitution method. Let \(t = \tan x\). Then, \(dt = \sec^2 x \, dx\).
We need to change the limits of integration based on the substitution:
The integral \(J\) becomes:
\(J = \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{1 + 2t^2} dt\)
To evaluate this integral, we can factor out 2 from the denominator:
\(J = \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{2(\frac{1}{2} + t^2)} dt = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2 + t^2} dt\)
This is in the form \(\int \frac{1}{a^2 + x^2} dx = \frac{1}{a} \arctan(\frac{x}{a})\). Here \(a = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) and the variable is \(t\).
\(J = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \frac{1}{1/\sqrt{2}} \arctan\left(\frac{t}{1/\sqrt{2}}\right) \right]_0^\infty\)
\(J = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \sqrt{2} \arctan\left(\sqrt{2}t\right) \right]_0^\infty\)
\(J = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \left[ \arctan\left(\sqrt{2}t\right) \right]_0^\infty\)
\(J = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( \lim_{t \to \infty} \arctan\left(\sqrt{2}t\right) - \arctan\left(\sqrt{2} \times 0\right) \right)\)
\(J = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( \arctan(\infty) - \arctan(0) \right)\)
We know that \(\arctan(\infty) = \pi/2\) and \(\arctan(0) = 0\).
\(J = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - 0 \right) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
Now we need to find \(I_2\), which is \(2J\).
\(I_2 = 2 \times J = 2 \times \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Thus, the value of \(I_2\) is \(\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}\).
Let's compare our calculated value of \(I_2\) with the given options:
Our calculated value \(\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}\) matches Option 1.
| Concept | Application in Solving \(I_2\) |
|---|---|
| Property of Definite Integrals \(\int_0^{2a} f(x) dx = 2 \int_0^a f(x) dx\) if \(f(2a-x) = f(x)\) | Used to simplify the integral limits from \(0\) to \(\pi\) to \(0\) to \(\pi/2\) because \(f(\pi - x) = f(x)\). |
| Dividing by \(\cos^2 x\) | Used to convert the integrand involving \(\sin^2 x\) and constant into terms involving \(\tan^2 x\) and \(\sec^2 x\). |
| Substitution Method | Used to transform the integral into a standard form (\(\int \frac{1}{a^2 + u^2} du\)) by substituting \(t = \tan x\) and subsequently \(u = \sqrt{2}t\). |
| Standard Integral \(\int \frac{1}{a^2 + u^2} du\) | Evaluated using the inverse tangent function \(\frac{1}{a} \arctan(\frac{u}{a})\). |
| Evaluating Definite Integral Limits | Correctly changing the limits of integration based on the substitutions and evaluating the inverse tangent at the new limits. |
Integrals involving trigonometric functions often require specific techniques. For integrals with \(\sin^n x \cos^m x\), different strategies apply based on the parity of \(n\) and \(m\). However, for integrands like \(\frac{1}{a + b \sin^2 x}\) or \(\frac{1}{a + b \cos^2 x}\) or \(\frac{1}{a \sin^2 x + b \cos^2 x + c}\), a common approach is to divide the numerator and denominator by \(\cos^2 x\).
Dividing by \(\cos^2 x\) transforms the integrand into a rational function of \(\tan x\) and \(\sec^2 x\). Since \(\sec^2 x\) is the derivative of \(\tan x\), this transformation prepares the integral for a simple substitution \(t = \tan x\). Remember that \(\sec^2 x = 1 + \tan^2 x\) should be used to express any remaining \(\sec^2 x\) terms in the denominator in terms of \(\tan x\).
After the substitution \(t = \tan x\), the integral becomes an integral of a rational function of \(t\). These integrals can often be solved using standard integration formulas, partial fraction decomposition, or other algebraic techniques. The definite integral limits must always be changed according to the substitution used.
In the case of \(I_2 = \int_0^\pi \frac{1}{1+\sin ^2 x} d x\), using the property \(\int_0^{2a} f(x) dx = 2 \int_0^a f(x) dx\) when applicable is crucial as it changes the upper limit from \(\pi\) to \(\pi/2\), which corresponds to \(\tan x\) covering the range from 0 to \(\infty\) exactly once, making the substitution \(t=\tan x\) straightforward over the interval \([0, \pi/2]\).
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