Which of the following is NOT a property of definite integral?
Definite integrals are a cornerstone of calculus, representing the net signed area under a curve over a specified interval. Understanding their fundamental properties is essential for effectively solving integration problems. This question asks us to identify which of the given options is NOT a property of definite integrals. Let's analyze each statement.
We will go through each option and determine its validity as a definite integral property.
This is a true property of definite integrals. It states that if the limits of integration are interchanged, the value of the integral changes its sign. This is a standard and fundamental rule in calculus.
This is also a true property, widely known as the King's Property or Property 4 of definite integrals. It is extremely useful for simplifying many complex integrals, especially those involving trigonometric functions or sums of terms where `\(x\)` and `\((a-x)\)` might simplify the integrand.
Similar to Property 2, this is also a true property. It is a specific application of the King's Property where the upper limit is `\(2a\)`. The general form of this property is \(\displaystyle\int_0^c f(x) dx = \displaystyle\int_0^c f(c-x) dx\), and here `\(c = 2a\)`.
This statement claims that changing the variable of integration from `\(x\)` to `\(t\)` results in a change of sign for the definite integral. This is NOT a property of definite integrals. A fundamental characteristic of definite integrals is that they are independent of the variable of integration (often called a dummy variable). The value of the definite integral depends only on the function being integrated and the limits of integration, not on the symbol used for the variable.
The correct property regarding the change of variable of integration states: \(\displaystyle\int_a^b f(x) dx = \displaystyle\int_a^b f(t) dt = \displaystyle\int_a^b f(u) du\). The presence of the negative sign in the given statement makes it incorrect.
After analyzing each option, it is clear that statements 1, 2, and 3 represent valid and widely recognized properties of definite integrals. Statement 4, however, introduces a negative sign when merely changing the variable of integration, which contradicts the principle that the definite integral's value is independent of the symbol used for its dummy variable. Therefore, this statement is not a property of definite integrals.
What is \(\displaystyle \int_0^\pi\left(\sin ^4 x+\cos ^4 x\right) d x\) equal to?
What is I equal to?
What is I 1equal to?
What is I 2+ I 3equal to?
What is I m is equal to?