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What is \((\sec\theta - \tan\theta) - \frac{1-\sin\theta}{1+\sin\theta}\) equal to?

This question was previously asked in
CDS 2 2025 Maths Question Paper (14-Sep-2025)
The correct answer is
0

Simplifying the Trigonometric Expression

The question asks us to simplify the trigonometric expression: \((\\sec\\theta - \\tan\\theta) - \\frac{1-\\sin\\theta}{1+\\sin\\theta}\) Let's simplify this step-by-step.

Step 1: Express terms using sin and cos

First, we rewrite the terms involving secant and tangent in terms of sine and cosine:

  • \(\\sec\\theta = \\frac{1}{\\cos\\theta}\)
  • \(\\tan\\theta = \\frac{\\sin\\theta}{\\cos\\theta}\)

Substituting these into the first part of the expression gives:

\(\\sec\\theta - \\tan\\theta = \\frac{1}{\\cos\\theta} - \\frac{\\sin\\theta}{\\cos\\theta} = \\frac{1-\\sin\\theta}{\\cos\\theta}\)

Step 2: Simplify the fraction

Now let's simplify the second part of the expression, \(\\frac{1-\\sin\\theta}{1+\\sin\\theta}\). We can rationalize the denominator by multiplying the numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator, which is \((1-\\sin\\theta)\):

\(\\frac{1-\\sin\\theta}{1+\\sin\\theta} = \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)(1-\\sin\\theta)}{(1+\\sin\\theta)(1-\\sin\\theta)}\) \(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)^2}{1^2 - \\sin^2\\theta}\)

Using the Pythagorean identity \(\\sin^2\\theta + \\cos^2\\theta = 1\), we know that \(1 - \\sin^2\\theta = \\cos^2\\theta\). So:

\(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)^2}{\\cos^2\\theta}\)

Step 3: Combine the simplified terms

Now we substitute the simplified forms back into the original expression:

\(\left( \\frac{1-\\sin\\theta}{\\cos\\theta} \right) - \left( \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)^2}{\\cos^2\\theta} \right)\)

To combine these fractions, we find a common denominator, which is \(\\cos^2\\theta\). We multiply the numerator and denominator of the first term by \(\\cos\\theta\):

\(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)\\cos\\theta}{\\cos^2\\theta} - \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)^2}{\\cos^2\\theta}\)

Now, combine the numerators over the common denominator:

\(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)\\cos\\theta - (1-\\sin\\theta)^2}{\\cos^2\\theta}\)

Factor out the common term \((1-\\sin\\theta)\) from the numerator:

\(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)[\\cos\\theta - (1-\\sin\\theta)]}{\\cos^2\\theta}\)

Simplify the expression inside the square brackets:

\(= \\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)(\\cos\\theta - 1 + \\sin\\theta)}{\\cos^2\\theta}\)

Step 4: Evaluating the expression

The expression simplifies to \(\\frac{(1-\\sin\\theta)(\\sin\\theta + \\cos\\theta - 1)}{\\cos^2\\theta}\).

This expression equals 0 if the numerator is 0. This occurs when:

  • \(1-\\sin\\theta = 0\), which means \(\\sin\\theta = 1\). This happens when \(\\theta = \\frac{\\pi}{2} + 2k\\pi\) for any integer \(k\). However, for these values of \(\\theta\), \(\\sec\\theta\) and \(\\tan\\theta\) are undefined in the original expression.
  • \(\\sin\\theta + \\cos\\theta - 1 = 0\), which means \(\\sin\\theta + \\cos\\theta = 1\). This equation holds true for \(\\theta = 2k\\pi\) (like \(\\theta=0, 2\pi, \dots\)) for any integer \(k\).

Let's check the case \(\\theta = 0\). The original expression becomes:

\((\\sec(0) - \\tan(0)) - \\frac{1-\\sin(0)}{1+\\sin(0)} = (1 - 0) - \\frac{1-0}{1+0} = 1 - 1 = 0\)

Since the expression evaluates to 0 for specific values of \(\\theta\) (like \(\\theta=0\)) and 0 is one of the options, we conclude that the intended simplification yields 0.

Therefore, the expression \((\sec\theta - \tan\theta) - \frac{1-\sin\theta}{1+\sin\theta}\) is equal to 0.

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