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A company issues 11% debentures of ₹ 100 each for an amount aggregating ₹ 2,00,000 at 10% premium, redeemable at par after 5 years. The company tax rate is 40%. The cost of debt is:

This question was previously asked in
UGC NET 2015 Paper 1 Question Paper (27-Dec-2015)
The correct answer is

4.38%

The after-tax cost of redeemable debt combines the tax-adjusted interest with the amortised premium or discount over the life of the debenture, relative to the average of its redemption value and net proceeds. The formula is \(K_d = \dfrac{I(1-t) + \frac{RV - NP}{n}}{\frac{RV + NP}{2}}\).

Set up the figures per debenture of face value ` 100. The coupon interest is \(I = 11\) (11% of 100). It is issued at a 10% premium, so the net proceeds are \(NP = 110\). It is redeemable at par, so the redemption value is \(RV = 100\). The life is \(n = 5\) years and the tax rate is \(t = 0.40\).

Now compute the parts. After-tax interest is \(11(1 - 0.40) = 6.6\). The amortised premium is \(\frac{100 - 110}{5} = -2\) (a premium reduces the effective cost). The numerator is \(6.6 + (-2) = 4.6\) and the average investment (denominator) is \(\frac{100 + 110}{2} = 105\).

Therefore \(K_d = \dfrac{4.6}{105} = 0.0438\), that is about 4.38%. Hence the cost of debt is 4.38%.

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