We are asked to find the smallest positive \(x\) that satisfies the equation:
\( \log_{\sin x} \cos x + \log_{\cos x} \sin x = 2 \)To solve this equation, we can use a substitution. Let \(y = \log_{\sin x} \cos x\). Using the change of base property for logarithms, \(\log_b a = \frac{1}{\log_a b}\), we have \(\log_{\cos x} \sin x = \frac{1}{\log_{\sin x} \cos x} = \frac{1}{y}\).
Substituting this into the original equation gives:
\( y + \frac{1}{y} = 2 \)To find the value of \(y\), we can solve this equation:
Now, substitute back \(y = \log_{\sin x} \cos x\):
\( \log_{\sin x} \cos x = 1 \)By the definition of a logarithm, if \(\log_b a = c\), then \(a = b^c\). Applying this here:
\( \cos x = (\sin x)^1 \) \( \cos x = \sin x \)To find \(x\), we can divide both sides by \(\cos x\) (assuming \(\cos x \neq 0\)):
\( \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} = 1 \) \( \tan x = 1 \)The general solution for \(\tan x = 1\) is \(x = n\pi + \frac{\pi}{4}\), where \(n\) is an integer.
We need the smallest positive value for \(x\). Setting \(n=0\) gives:
\( x = 0\pi + \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{4} \)For the original logarithmic equation \(\log_{\sin x} \cos x + \log_{\cos x} \sin x = 2\) to be defined, the bases (\(\sin x\), \(\cos x\)) must be positive and not equal to 1, and the arguments (\(\cos x\), \(\sin x\)) must be positive.
These conditions require \(x\) to be in the first quadrant, i.e., \(0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2}\).
Our potential solution is \(x = \frac{\pi}{4}\). Let's check if it satisfies the conditions:
Since \(x = \frac{\pi}{4}\) satisfies the domain requirements and the equation \(\tan x = 1\), it is the smallest positive solution.
For \(x \ge y > 1\), let \(\log_x\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) + \log_y\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) = k\), then the value of \(k\) can never be equal to
If \(\log_ba = p\), \(\log_dc = 2p\) and \(\log_fe = 3p\), then what is \((ace)^{\frac{1}{p}}\) equal to ?
Given that $132^{0.14} = x$, $132^{0.26} = y$ and $x^z = y^2$, then the value of z is close to:
For \(x \ge y > 1\), let \(\log_x\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) + \log_y\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) = k\), then the value of \(k\) can never be equal to
If \(\log_ba = p\), \(\log_dc = 2p\) and \(\log_fe = 3p\), then what is \((ace)^{\frac{1}{p}}\) equal to ?