This problem requires finding the cost price (CP) of the first bike when the total cost price of two bikes is known, and they are sold at different profit/loss percentages but achieve the same selling price (SP).
We use the standard formulas:
For Bike 1 (20% profit): SP1 = CP1 $\times$ (1 + 20/100) = CP1 $\times$ 1.20
For Bike 2 (20% loss): SP2 = CP2 $\times$ (1 - 20/100) = CP2 $\times$ 0.80
Given that SP1 = SP2:
$ CP_1 \times 1.20 = CP_2 \times 0.80 $
Rearrange the equation to find the relationship between the cost prices:
$ \frac{CP_1}{CP_2} = \frac{0.80}{1.20} $
Simplify the fraction:
$ \frac{CP_1}{CP_2} = \frac{8}{12} = \frac{2}{3} $
This means the ratio CP1 : CP2 is 2 : 3. We can express CP2 in terms of CP1:
$ CP_2 = \frac{3}{2} CP_1 $
Use the total cost price equation and substitute the relation found:
CP1 + CP2 = 1,00,000
Substitute CP2 = $\frac{3}{2}$ CP1:
$ CP_1 + \frac{3}{2} CP_1 = 1,00,000 $
Combine the CP1 terms:
$ \left(1 + \frac{3}{2}\right) CP_1 = 1,00,000 $
$ \left(\frac{5}{2}\right) CP_1 = 1,00,000 $
Solve for CP1:
$ CP_1 = 1,00,000 \times \frac{2}{5} $
$ CP_1 = 40,000 $
Therefore, the cost price of the first bike is ₹40,000.
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