The density function of a random variable is given by \(p(x)=Ke^{-\frac{x^{2}}{2}}\) for \(-\infty \lt x \lt \infty\). The value of K should be :
\(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\)
Any probability density must enclose unit area — that single condition fixes K.
\(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}p(x)\,dx=1\)
Step 1 — recall the Gaussian integral. The standard result is
\(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-ax^{2}}dx=\sqrt{\dfrac{\pi}{a}}\)
and here the exponent is \(-\dfrac{x^{2}}{2}\), so \(a=\dfrac{1}{2}\) and
\(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^{2}/2}dx=\sqrt{\dfrac{\pi}{1/2}}=\sqrt{2\pi}\)
Step 2 — impose normalisation.
\(K\sqrt{2\pi}=1\qquad\Rightarrow\qquad K=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\)
which is option 2, and numerically \(K=0.3989\).
Recognise the distribution. Comparing with the general Gaussian form
\(p(x)=\dfrac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp\left(-\dfrac{(x-\mu)^{2}}{2\sigma^{2}}\right)\)
shows that this is the standard normal distribution, with mean \(\mu=0\) and variance \(\sigma^{2}=1\). The constant \(1/\sqrt{2\pi}\) is therefore not something to derive afresh each time — it is the familiar peak value of the standard normal curve, and recognising it answers the question in one step.
| Property | Value |
|---|---|
| Mean μ | 0, by symmetry |
| Variance σ2 | 1 |
| Peak p(0) | 0.3989 |
| Within ±1σ | 68.3 % |
| Within ±3σ | 99.7 % |
A quick plausibility check on the other options : K must be less than 1 (a density peaking above 1 while spread over an infinite range could not integrate to unity here), which rules out option 1 at 0.798 — it is in fact the correct constant for a half-normal density on \(0\le x\lt\infty\), twice the value found above, and is the trap for anyone who integrates over only half the range.
Why this density dominates communication theory : thermal noise in a resistor is the sum of an enormous number of independent electron motions, and by the central limit theorem any such sum tends to a Gaussian whatever the individual statistics. That is the justification for the AWGN channel model on which every error-probability calculation rests.
Hence, K = 1/√(2π).
Consider the following probability density function for a random variable x.
(a) \(f_{1}(x)=1\ ;\ -1\le x\le 1\)
(b) \(f_{2}(x)=x\ ;\ 0\le x\le 1\)
(c) \(f_{3}(x)=(1-x)\ ;\ -1\le x\le 1\)
Arrange the above functions in terms of the increasing value of mean of random variable x.
Considering all the symbols with their usual meanings, match the following :
| List - I | List - II |
| (a) \(f_{X}(x)\) | (i) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X,Y}(x,y)\,dx\) |
| (b) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X}(x)\,dx\) | (ii) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{a}f_{X}(x)\,dx\) |
| (c) \(F_{X}(a)\) | (iii) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X,Y}(x,y)\,dy\) |
| (d) \(f_{Y}(y)\) | (iv) 1 |
Codes :
If the odds in favour of any random event A are 5 ∶ 6, then the odds against the event are:
If random variable X follows binomial distribution with parameter n and p with mean 15 and variance 10, then the value of mode is
Consider the following probability density function for a random variable x.
(a) \(f_{1}(x)=1\ ;\ -1\le x\le 1\)
(b) \(f_{2}(x)=x\ ;\ 0\le x\le 1\)
(c) \(f_{3}(x)=(1-x)\ ;\ -1\le x\le 1\)
Arrange the above functions in terms of the increasing value of mean of random variable x.
Considering all the symbols with their usual meanings, match the following :
| List - I | List - II |
| (a) \(f_{X}(x)\) | (i) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X,Y}(x,y)\,dx\) |
| (b) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X}(x)\,dx\) | (ii) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{a}f_{X}(x)\,dx\) |
| (c) \(F_{X}(a)\) | (iii) \(\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{X,Y}(x,y)\,dy\) |
| (d) \(f_{Y}(y)\) | (iv) 1 |
Codes :