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UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper; Download CSAT Paper with Answer Key PDF

IAS Prelims CSAT Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key is available here to download in PDF format. UPSC has scheduled IAS Prelims 2024 Exam on June 16, 2024. IAS Prelims GS Exam was conducted from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM. Aspirants can Download IAS Prelims CSAT 2024 Question Paper from below table.

UPSC IAS Exam consists of three stages: Prelims, Mains and Interview. The Prelims comprises of GS Paper 1 (100 questions) and CSAT (80 questions). Each of them is objective in nature and consists of 200 marks.

UPSC Prelims CSAT (Paper II) Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key – June 16, 2024

UPSC Prelims CSAT 2024 Question Paper	UPSC Prelims CSAT 2024 Answer Key
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Q. No.	Question	Answer	Detailed Solution
1.	Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage – 1 According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3-5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability. Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. The current methods of food distribution are solely responsible for the loss and wastage of food. 2. Land productivity is adversely affected by the prevailing trend of food loss and wastage. 3. Reduction in the loss and wastage of food results in lesser carbon footprint. 4. Post-harvest technologies to prevent or reduce the loss and wastage of food are not available. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4	b) 2 and 3 only	Option (b) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect because the passage highlights that food loss and wastage occur across the entire supply chain, not just due to current food distribution methods. Statement 2 is correct, as food loss and wastage significantly impact land degradation and productivity. Statement 3 correctly indicates that reducing food loss lowers the carbon footprint. Statement 4 is incorrect; the passage emphasizes the importance of post-harvest technologies for reducing food loss and wastage, rather than suggesting their unavailability.
2.	Based on the above passage, the following assumption have been made:The food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective to reduce the loss and wastage of food.Ensuring the reduction of wastage and loss of food is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens.Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	a) 1 only	Option (a) is the correct answer. Assumption 1 is valid: The passage underscores that one-third of global food production is wasted due to supply chain inefficiencies, necessitating improvements in food distribution to reduce wastage. Assumption 2 is invalid: While the passage stresses the environmental impact of food loss, it does not explicitly imply a social or moral duty for all citizens.
3.	Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing. The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	c) Both 1 and 2	Option c is correct because both statements reflect how monetary and fiscal policies work together to control inflation.
4.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices. Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	Option d is correct as the passage does not solely attribute higher prices to fiscal policies and acknowledges impact on bonds.
5.	Which is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces? a) 8 b) 9 c) 12 d) 16	b) 9	To divide the cube into 64 identical pieces, it must be cut into dimensions of 4 x 4 x 4. The minimum number of cuts needed for each of the three perpendicular faces is as follows:Top-to-bottom cuts on the top/bottom face: 3 cuts Left-to-right cuts on the left/right face: 3 cuts Front-to-back cuts on the front/back face: 3 cuts Therefore, the least number of cuts required to divide the cube into 64 identical spaces is 3+3+3=93 + 3 + 3 = 93+3+3=9 cuts. Hence, option (b) is correct.
6.	In the expression 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1, * is chosen from +, -, each at most two times. Which is the smallest non-negative value of the expression? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0	d) 0	The correct answer is option D. By choosing symbols as given, the expression becomes:5 – 4 – 3 + 2 x 1 = 5 – 7 + 2 = 0.This results in the smallest nonnegative value of the expression, which is 0. Thus, option D is correct.
7.	A certain number of men can complete a piece of work in 6k days, where k is a natural number. By what percent should the number of men be increased so that the work can be completed in 5K days? a) 10% b) (50/3)% c) 20% d) 25%	c) 20%	Option (c) is the correct answer.Let the initial number of workers be N1N_1N1 and the final number of workers be N2N_2N2. Since the number of workers and the number of days are inversely proportional, their product remains constant. Therefore:6k×N1=5k×N26k \times N_1 = 5k \times N_26k×N1=5k×N2Rearranging gives:N2=65N1N_2 = \frac{6}{5} N_1N2=56N1The percentage increase in the number of workers is calculated as:Percentage Increase=(N2−N1N1)×100=(65−1)×100=20%\text{Percentage Increase} = \left(\frac{N_2 - N_1}{N_1}\right) \times 100 = \left(\frac{6}{5} - 1\right) \times 100 = 20\%Percentage Increase=(N1N2−N1)×100=(56−1)×100=20%Thus, option (c) is correct.
8.	X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. However, only one person at a time can work in each hour and nobody can work for two consecutive hours. All are engaged to finish the work. What is the minimum amount of time that they will take to finish the work? a) 6 hours 15 minutes b) 6 hours 30 minutes c) 6 hours 45 minutes d) 7 hours	c) 6 hours 45 minutes	Option (c) is correct. X, Y, and Z complete the work in 6, 8, and 8 hours, respectively. Using the total work and efficiency method, we find the total work as the LCM of (6, 8, 8) = 24 units. The efficiency of X = 24/6 = 4 units/hour; Y and Z = 24/8 = 3 units/hour. Working alternately, X starts the first hour, followed by Y/Z. X works in odd hours, Y/Z in even hours. After 6 hours, 21 units are completed. In the 7th hour, X completes the remaining 3 units in ¾ hour (45 minutes). Total time = 6 hours 45 minutes.
9.	How many consecutive zeros are there at the end of the integer obtained in the product 12 24 36 48 … 2550? a) 50 b) 55 c) 100 d) 200	d) 200	Option (d) is the correct answer.The number of zeros at the end of a number represents how many times it can be divided by 10. Since 10=2×5, the number of 10s formed is determined by the smaller count of 2s or 5s present. Here, the base numbers containing 5 as a factor are: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25. Counting the number of 5s, we find:51: 10 52: 20 53: 30 54: 40 55: 100 (including multiples) Total = 200. Since there are more 2s than 5s, zeros are determined by 5s, yielding 200 zeros. Hence, option (d) is correct.
10.	On January 1st, 2023, a person saved Rs. 1. On January 2nd, 2003, he save Rs. 2 more than that on the previous day. On January 3rd, 2023, he saved Rs. 2 more than that on the previous day and so on. At the end of which date was his total savings a perfect square as well a perfect cube? a) 7th January 2023 b) 8th January, 2023 c) 9th January, 2023 d) Not possible	b) 8th January, 2023	Option (b) is the correct answer. The savings pattern for individual days follows: Day 1 = 1, Day 2 = 3, Day 3 = 5, forming a series 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, and so on.Total savings accumulate in a pattern of perfect squares: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, etc.According to the question, total savings must be both a perfect square and a perfect cube.The first number satisfying both conditions is 64.To achieve savings totaling 64, savings for 8 days must be summed: 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 = 64.Therefore, the total savings become a perfect square and perfect cube after 8 days, on 8 January 2023.
11.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? a) Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach. b) In India, city administration is under bureaucracy which lacks formal training in urban planning and management. c) In India, the management of urban areas is a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds. d) With high density of population and widespread poverty in our urban areas, planned development in them is very difficult.	a) Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach.	The passage emphasizes the significance of a diverse and interdisciplinary approach in urban planning, illustrated by cities like New York, London, and Paris. This diverse approach enabled comprehensive integration of computing, statistics, and geography into planning curricula. The other options do not directly relate to the focus on educational methodology or systematic planning's impact on city development, making option (a) the most logical inference.
12.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:1. India needs a new generation of urban professionals with knowledge relevant to modern urban practice.2. Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach.Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	The passage discusses differences in urban planning education between India and the West but does not make a definitive statement that India lacks modern professionals or that its universities cannot provide systems-based training. It primarily focuses on historical and educational contrasts in planning. Thus, neither assumption is substantiated, making option (d) correct.
13.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage? a) Constructed as a marketplace of views, social media ensures instant access to information. b) Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits. c) Social media have been created to strengthen democracies. d) In today’s world, social media are inevitable for well-informed social life.	b) Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits.	The passage underscores the impact of financial influence on social media, highlighting that these platforms prioritize content that maximizes user engagement, irrespective of its ethical or political implications. This aligns with the idea that social media platforms are profit-driven products, not designed as moral or democratic institutions. Therefore, option (b) accurately captures the central idea.
14.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:1. Internet is not inclusive enough.2. Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country.Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	c) Both 1 and 2	Assumption 1 is valid because the passage implies that powerful entities can dominate online discourse due to high capital, indicating that the internet is not an equal platform for all. Assumption 2 is also valid, as it highlights that the focus on content engagement in digital political discourse can degrade political quality. Therefore, both assumptions are valid, making option (c) correct.
15.	222333 + 333222 is divisible by which of the following numbers? a) 2 and 3 but not 37 b) 3 and 37 but not 2 c) 2 and 37 but not 3 d) 2, 3 and 37	b) 3 and 37 but not 2	Adding 222333 and 333222 yields a number divisible by 3 and 37 since both terms are multiples of 3 and their sum maintains this divisibility. The expression is not divisible by 2 since the sum is odd. Thus, the correct answer is (b). The factorization confirms divisibility by 3 and 37 but excludes 2, matching the given option.
16.	What percent of water must be mixed with honey so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey? a) 20% b) 10% c) 5% d) 4%	a) 20%	Let 100 ml of honey be sold at the cost price. To achieve a 20% profit, the selling price should be 120 ml of the mixture. Therefore, 20 ml of water needs to be added to 100 ml of honey. The percentage of water mixed is (20/100) * 100% = 20%. Hence, the correct answer is (a). This calculation ensures a proportional increase corresponding to the profit.
17.	What is the rightmost digit preceding the zeros in the value of 3030? a) 1 b) 3 c) 7 d) 9	d) 9	The value 3030 can be expressed as (3×10)30. The rightmost digit is determined by the unit digit of 330. Since the unit digits of powers of 3 repeat in cycles of 4 (3, 9, 7, 1), dividing 30 by 4 gives a remainder of 2. Thus, the unit digit is 9. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
18.	421 and 427, when divided digit preceding the zeros in the same remainder 1. How many numbers can be used as the divisor in order to get the same remainder 1? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4	c) 3	For divisors yielding a remainder of 1, we subtract 1 from both numbers, giving 420 and 426. The common divisors of these two numbers, which are also less than or equal to 6, are 2, 3, and 6. Thus, three divisors satisfy the condition, making option (c) the correct answer.
19.	A can X contains 399 liters of petrol and a can Y contains 532 liters of diesel. They are to be bottled in bottles of equal size so that whole of petrol and diesel would be separately bottled. The bottle capacity in terms of liters is an integer. How many different bottle sizes are possible? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6	b) 4	The common factors of 399 (3 × 7 × 19) and 532 (2 × 2 × 7 × 19) are 1, 7, 19, and 133. This gives four possible bottle sizes, making option (b) the correct answer. The solution identifies shared factors that ensure equal distribution for both substances.
20.	Consider the following statements in respect of the sum S=x+y+z, where x, y, and z are distinct prime numbers each less than 10:1. The unit digit of S can be 0.2. The unit digit of S can be 9.3. The unit digit of S can be 5.Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3	c) 1 and 3 only	The prime numbers less than 10 are 2, 3, 5, and 7. The sum S=x+y+z with distinct values gives possible sums like 10, 12, 14, and 15. Thus, the unit digit can be 0, 2, 4, or 5, but not 9. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making option (c) the correct answer.
21.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:1. For effective school education, parents have greater role than the governments.2. School curriculum that conforms to today’s requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought outWhich of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	Option d is the correct answer. Assumption 1 is invalid as the passage does not mention parents having a greater role than governments in education. Assumption 2 is also invalid since the passage does not suggest that a uniform curriculum is the solution to the problems faced by students.
22.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage? a) Total eradication of poverty in the country will resolve the issue of under-performance of our school-children. b) Monetary incentives to parents and teachers is a strategy to improve the children’s academic performance. c) Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations. d) India is not going to take advantage of the demographic dividend unless some school pass-outs go back to agriculture.	c) Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.	Option c is correct. The passage emphasizes aligning competencies and achievements of young people with their expectations through public policy interventions. Options a, b, and d introduce unrelated aspects such as poverty eradication and agriculture, which are not central to the passage.
23.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the thinking of the author about the science? a) Science must value the commitment of the scientists. b) Science is a product of civilized society and must be used for the promotion of scientific awareness in people. c) Industrial revolution was made possible by the advancements in science. d) Science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare.	d) Science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare.	Option d is correct. The passage discusses the historical change from viewing science solely as a pursuit of truth to considering its social responsibility. This aligns with the idea that science should pursue truth but also be mindful of social welfare.
24.	Consider the sequence A_BCD_BBCDABC_DABC_D that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence? a) B, A, D, C b) B, A, C, D c) A, A, C, D d) A, A, D, C	c) A, A, C, D	Option c is correct. The pattern in the sequence is AABCD, ABBCD, ABCCD, ABCDD. Filling in the gaps with this pattern gives the letters A, A, C, D.
Q25	Two persons P and Q enter into a business. P puts ₹14,000 more than Q, but P has invested for 8 months and Q has invested for 10 months. If P’s share is ₹400 more than Q’s share out of the total profit of ₹2,000, what is the capital contributed by P? a) ₹30,000 b) ₹26,000 c) ₹24,000 d) ₹20,000	a) ₹30,000	Option a is correct. Let P’s profit be ₹1200 and Q’s profit be ₹800. Using the ratio of profits proportional to investments and time, solving the equation results in P’s capital being ₹30,000.
26.	P’s salary is 20% lower than Q’s salary which is 20% lower than R’s salary. By how much percent is R’s salary more than P’s salary? a) 48.75% b) 56.25% c) 60.50% d) 62.25%	b) 56.25%	Option b is correct. If R’s salary is 100x, then Q’s is 80x and P’s is 64x. The difference between R’s and P’s salaries is 36x. The percentage increase is (36x/64x) * 100 = 56.25%.
27.	A number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4. What the percentage change in the result due to this mistake? a) 25% b) 50% c) 72.75% d) 93.75%	d) 93.75%	Option d is correct. Let the number be n. The mistaken result is n/4, while the correct result is 4n. The percentage change is ((4n - n/4)/4n) * 100 = 93.75%.
28.	In an examination, 80% of students passed in English, 70% of students passed in Hindi and 15% failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students who failed in only one subject? a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 35%	b	Option b is correct. 15% failed in both, so 85% passed at least one subject. Let x% have passed both. Total passing in one subject is 85-65=20%.
29.	A father said to his son, â€œn years back I was as old as you are now. My present age is four times your age n years backâ€. If the sum of the present ages of the father and the son is 130 years, what is the difference of their ages? a) 30 years b) 32 years c) 34 years d) 36 years	a) 30 years	Option a is correct. Let the son's age be x. n years ago, the father was x years old, and the current sum of their ages is 130 years. Solving gives a difference of 30 years.
30.	Consider the following: 1000 litres = 1 m³ 1 metric ton 1000 kg 1-hectare 10000 m2 Which of the above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3	d) 1, 2 and 3	Option d is correct. The relationships are 1m³ = 1000 litres, 1 metric ton = 1000 kg, and 1 hectare = 10000 m². Thus, all are correct.
31.	Which of the following is/are emphatically conveyed by the author of the passage? (1) Without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today. (2) It is the science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	Statement 1 is incorrect as the passage does not explicitly state that without science, mankind could not have continued to exist. Statement 2 is also incorrect as the passage does not predict that science will determine the destiny of mankind. Hence, option d is correct.
32.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (1) The horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science. (2) The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science is what man has made it. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	b) 2 only	Assumption 1 is incorrect because the passage suggests questioning if international conflicts are the inevitable result of scientific progress. Assumption 2 is correct since the passage emphasizes that science is shaped by human actions. Hence, option b is correct.
33.	When we meet other people while we travel, we learn to differentiate between a) imagination and understanding b) communities and nationalities c) local values and universal values d) friends and foes	c) local values and universal values	The passage highlights that values like justice and honor are universal but molded differently across cultures, stressing the differentiation between local and universal values. Thus, option c is correct.
34.	With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (1) Travel leads to an understanding of humans. (2) Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values. (3) A person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3	d) 1, 2 and 3	All three assumptions are supported by the passage as it emphasizes understanding humans through travel, learning fundamental values, and resolving differences through experience. Thus, option d is correct.
35.	Let X be a two-digit number and Y be another two-digit number formed by interchanging the digits of X. If (X+Y) is the greatest two-digit number, then what is the number of possible values of X? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8	d) 8	Given that X+Y is the greatest two-digit number (99), we find that a+b = 9. The possible values of X are 18, 81, 27, 72, 36, 63, 45, and 54, totaling 8 values. Thus, option d is correct.
36.	Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women. If the average weight of the women is 63 kg, then what is the average weight of the boys? a) 40 kg b) 42 kg c) 45 kg d) 63 kg	b) 42 kg	Given the average weight of 4 women is 63 kg, the total weight of 4 women is 252 kg. Since 6 boys have the same total weight, their average weight is 42 kg. Thus, option b is correct.
37.	How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. (same day)? a) 3 times b) 4 times c) 5 times d) 6 times	a) 3 times	The hour hand and minute hand coincide three times between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m., once in each of the intervals: 10:50-10:55, 12:00, and 1:05-1:10. Thus, option a is correct.
38.	The calendar for the year 2025 is same for a) 2029 b) 2030 c) 2031 d) 2033	c) 2031	A seven-day shift occurs after 2025 to align the calendar again, making 2031 the next year with the same calendar. Thus, option c is correct.
39.	Let p, q, r and s be distinct positive integers. Let p, q be odd and r, s be even. Consider the following statements:(p – r)2 (qs) is even.(q – s) q2 s is even.(q + r)² (p + s) is odd.Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3	d) 1, 2 and 3	Given p, q are odd and r, s are even: Statement 1 is even since it involves oddoddeven. Statement 2 is even due to even multiplication. Statement 3 is odd since it involves odd*odd. Thus, option d is correct.
40.	What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand when the clock shows 4:25 hours? a) 12.5 degrees b) 15 degrees c) 17.5 degrees d) 20 degrees	c) 17.5 degrees	The minute hand moves 6 degrees per minute, and the hour hand moves 0.5 degrees per minute. At 4:25, the angle difference is 17.5 degrees. Thus, option c is correct.
41.	Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1) In conventional classroom learning, the central goal is duration of learning rather than attainment of competency. 2) Conventional classrooms encourage one-size-fits-all approach and stamp out all differentiation.Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	c) Both 1 and 2	The passage argues that conventional classrooms emphasize fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resulting in variable outcomes. Statement 1 is correct because it highlights how the focus on time rather than competency undermines true learning. Statement 2 is also correct, as the passage mentions a uniform teaching approach applied to all students, regardless of individual needs, leading to disparities in outcomes. Thus, both statements accurately capture the passage's critique.
42.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1) As a large number of workers in our country are employed in unorganized sector, India does not need change to its present conventional classroom system of education. 2) Even with its present conventional classroom system of education, India produces sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend.Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d	The passage critiques the conventional education system for its inefficiencies without mentioning the impact on unorganized sector workers (invalidating Assumption 1). It also highlights low employability rates among graduates, implying insufficient skilled workforce production, contradicting Assumption 2. Therefore, neither assumption is valid, making option (d) correct.
43.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1) The adolescent does not feel comfortable with his parents because they tend to be dominating and assertive. 2) The adolescent of modern times does not have much respect for parents.Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	a) 1 only	The passage describes parental dominance and assertiveness, causing discomfort for adolescents, validating Assumption 1. However, it does not provide evidence that adolescents lack respect for their parents, making Assumption 2 invalid. Thus, option (a) is correct.
44.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage? a) Parents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults. b) When children reach adolescence, involvement of parents in their lives is unnecessary. c) Modern-day nuclear families are not capable of bringing up children properly. d) In modern societies, adolescents tend to be stubborn, disobedient, and careless.	a) Parents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults.	The passage highlights the conflict between adolescents and parents due to parental dominance and adolescents' quest for independence. Option (a) best reflects this idea by suggesting that parents may not always provide effective support as children grow into adults. Other options are either too extreme or not aligned with the passage's central theme.
45.	What is the number of fives used in numbering a 260-page book? a) 55 b) 56 c) 57 d) 60	b) 56	The digit '5' appears in the units place for pages 5, 15, 25, ..., 255 (total 26 times). It appears in the tens place for pages 50-59, 150-159, and 250-259 (total 30 times). Additionally, it appears once in page 5, making the total count 56. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
46.	What is the sum of the first 28 terms in the following sequence?1,1,2,1,3,2,1,4,3,2,1,5,4,3,2,… a) 83 b) 84 c) 85 d) 86	b) 84	The sequence follows a pattern of increasing sets of natural numbers in reverse order. The first 28 terms form groups as 2 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 6 terms. Summing these terms yields: 1 + 1 + 3 + 6 + 10 + 15 + 21 + 27 = 84. Thus, option (b) is correct.
47.	A person buys three articles P, Q, and R for ₹ 3,330. If P costs 25% more than R and R costs 20% more than Q, then what is the cost of P? a) ₹ 1,000 b) ₹ 1,200 c) ₹ 1,250 d) ₹ 1,350	d) ₹ 1,350	Let Q = x, then R = 1.2x, and P = 1.25 * 1.2x = 1.5x. Total cost equation: x + 1.2x + 1.5x = 3330. Solving gives x = 900. Therefore, P = 1.5 * 900 = 1350. Hence, option (d) is correct.
48.	If the sum of the two-digit numbers AB and CD is the three-digit number 1CE, where the letters A, B, C, D, E denote distinct digits, then what is the value of A? a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data	a) 9	For AB + CD = 1CE, B + D results in E or 1E. Since A + C + carry = 10, A = 9 is the only valid digit. Thus, option (a) is correct.
49.	Three numbers x, y, z are selected from the set of the first seven natural numbers such that x > 2y > 3z. How many such distinct triplets (x, y, z) are possible? a) One triplet b) Two triplets c) Three triplets d) Four triplets	d) Four triplets	Given x > 2y > 3z, z = 1 (as higher values make conditions impossible). Possible values for (x, y, z) are (7, 2, 1), (7, 3, 1), (6, 2, 1), (5, 2, 1), yielding four triplets. Therefore, option (d) is correct.
50.	The total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes, and 8 apples is equal to twice the total cost of 1 orange, 2 mangoes, and 5 apples. Consider the following statements:1) The total cost of 3 oranges, 5 mangoes, and 9 apples is equal to the total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes, and 8 apples.2) The total cost of one orange and one mango is equal to the cost of one apple.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	c) Both 1 and 2	Let O, M, A denote costs of orange, mango, and apple respectively. Given: 4O + 6M + 8A = 2(O + 2M + 5A), simplifying gives O + M = A. Statement 1: 3O + 5M + 9A = 4O + 6M + 8A holds true. Statement 2: O + M = A also holds true. Therefore, both statements are correct, making option (c) correct.
51.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage? a) It is a cheap and practical method to produce limestone at commercial level for building purposes. b) This can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration. c) Basalt rock can be made a good source of calcium and magnesium minerals by this method. d) Good rock-dissolving acid can be produced by mixing carbon dioxide and water.	b) This can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration.	Option b is the correct answer. The passage highlights a method to sequester carbon dioxide underground by converting it into limestone within basalt rocks. This process aligns well with efforts to reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide, a critical aspect of combating climate change. Option a is irrelevant as it focuses on commercial limestone production. Option c incorrectly emphasizes mineral extraction, while option d misrepresents the process. The most logical implication is its use in carbon sequestration, as reflected in option b.
52.	Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Giant icebergs have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean. 2. Melting of giant icebergs can produce climate change effects and impact world fisheries.Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	a) 1 only	Option a is the correct answer. Assumption 1 is valid because the passage discusses how nutrients released by melting giant icebergs support high phytoplankton productivity, a key component of the Southern Ocean's primary productivity and food chains. Assumption 2 is invalid since there is no mention of global climate change impacts or fisheries in the passage. Hence, only Assumption 1 is valid.
53.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the passage? a) Farmers can use caterpillars to feed on weeds in their crop fields/ plantations. b) This finding can help in the development of clinically useful antimicrobial compounds. c) This finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides. d) Caterpillars can be genetically modified to be predators of the other plant pests.	c) This finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides.	Option c is the correct answer. The passage explains how caterpillars induce plants to deactivate their defenses, offering potential insights for developing sustainable pest control solutions. Option a misrepresents the topic by focusing on weed consumption. Option b incorrectly extends the finding to clinical antimicrobial development. Option d diverges from the passageâ€™s core focus on plant-caterpillar interactions. The message aligns best with the development of sustainable pesticides, as per option c.
54.	325 +227 is divisible by a) 3 b) 7 c) 10 d) 11	c) 10	Option c is the correct answer. The sum of 325 and 227 is 552, which ends with a 2. A number is divisible by 10 if it ends in 0. Therefore, it is clear that the given number is divisible by 10. Thus, option c is correct.
55.	Let p and q be positive integers satisfying p<q and p+q=k. What is the smallest value of k that does not determine p and q uniquely? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6	c) 5	Option c is the correct answer. To avoid uniquely determining p and q, there must be multiple pairs for p + q = k. For k = 3 and k = 4, only one unique pair exists for each case. For k = 5, both (p, q) = (1, 4) and (2, 3) are possible. Therefore, k = 5 is the smallest value that does not uniquely determine p and q.
56.	A person walks 100 m straight from his house, turns left and walks 100 m, again turns left and walks 300 m, then turns right and walks 100 m to reach his office. In which direction does he walk initially from his house if his office is exactly in the North-East direction?a) North-Westb) Westc) Southd) South-West	c) South	Option c is the correct answer. The person first walks 100 m southward, then turns left (toward east) for 100 m, again turns left (toward north) for 300 m, and finally turns right (toward east) for 100 m. Since the office is in the northeast direction, the initial direction from the house must have been south.
57.	A person walks 100 m Westward, then turns left and walks 100 m. He then takes 225° turn clockwise. In which direction is he walking now?a) South-Westb) South-Eastc) North-Westd) North-East	d) North-East	Option d is the correct answer. After walking 100 m west, turning left leads the person south. A 225° clockwise turn puts the person facing northeast. This conclusion aligns with option d.
58.	A Statement is given followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the Statement and the Conclusions.Statement:India is the world’s largest producer of milk.Conclusion-I:India is the world’s largest exporter of milk.Conclusion-II:India does not import milk.Which one of the following is correct? a) Only Conclusion-I follows b) Only Conclusion-II follows c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II follow d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II follows	d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II follows	Option d is the correct answer. Producing milk does not guarantee exporting it; a country can be a large producer and still consume most of it domestically. Similarly, large production does not imply zero imports, as a country might import specialized dairy products. Hence, neither conclusion follows.
59.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: What are the values of m and n where m and n are natural numbers?Statement-I: m+n > mn and m > n.Statement-II: The product of m and n is 24.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together	c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone	Option c is the correct answer. Statement 1 suggests n = 1 since m > n and m + n > mn. Alone, it does not determine m and n. Statement 2 alone also does not uniquely identify values. Together, they determine m = 24 and n = 1, making both statements necessary.
60.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: What is the time required to download the software?Statement-I: The size of the software is 12 megabytes.Statement-II: The transfer rate is 2-4 kilobytes per second.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone	Option c is the correct answer. Statement I provides the software size, while Statement II provides the transfer rate range. Both are necessary to calculate the time required to download. Individually, neither statement is sufficient. Therefore, both statements together provide the necessary information.
61.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage? a) Responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy. b) Fake news seems inherent in the life of an ideal democracy. c) There should not be any kind of restrictions on the freedom of expression in an ideal democracy. d) Irresponsible media and political leaders cannot be effectively controlled in an ideal democracy.	a) Responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy.	Option a is correct: The passage emphasizes the importance of a responsible media in a democracy that ensures the accurate and transparent circulation of reality without distortion. Option b is incorrect as it contradicts the need for accurate information circulation. Option c focuses on freedom of expression, which is unrelated to the passage's emphasis on media responsibility. Option d misrepresents the passage's focus, as it centers on responsible media communication.
62.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage? a) Knowledge of consumer behaviour leads to more capital expenditure in manufacturing sector. b) Knowledge of consumer behaviour stimulates the growth of commerce and trade and thus helps in the overall economic development of the country. c) Interconnected devices give a lot of comfort to home users and improve the overall quality of life. d) Interconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk.	d) Interconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk.	Option d is correct: The passage highlights potential security and privacy risks associated with interconnected devices due to data gathering without consumer agreement. Option a incorrectly focuses on manufacturing expenses, and option b exaggerates the passage's scope without aligning with its message. Option c, while partially true, is not the main theme of the passage.
63.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage? a) Environmental sustainability is inimical to our objective of achieving a high rate of GDP growth. b) Poverty eradication is not possible without a rapid economic growth and the consequent environmental degradation. c) Maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving a steady, sufficient and inclusive growth. d) With large populations, rampant poverty and limited resources of today’s world, environmental degradation cannot be prevented and inequalities are inevitable.	c) Maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving a steady, sufficient and inclusive growth.	Option c is correct: The passage stresses maintaining high environmental standards for inclusive and sustainable growth. Option a incorrectly portrays sustainability as an obstacle, option b implies economic growth through degradation, and option d incorrectly emphasizes inevitable degradation and inequality.
64.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: What are the unique values of x and y, where x, y are distinct natural numbers?Statement-I: x / y is odd.Statement-II: xy = 12Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone. b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone. c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone. d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.	Combining both statements, we find the unique values of x and y to be 6 and 2, respectively. Statement I alone suggests several possibilities, while Statement II alone also does not uniquely determine the values. Together, they provide a unique solution.
65	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: Who received the least amount?Statement-1: X received 4/5 of what Y and Z together received.Statement-II: Y received 2/7 of what X and Z together received.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone. b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone. c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone. d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.	Combining both statements, we derive sufficient equations to determine the least recipient. Each statement alone is insufficient to answer the question definitively, but together they provide the required information.
66.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: If the average marks in a class are 60, then what is the number of students in the class?Statement-I: The highest marks in the class are 70 and the lowest marks are 50.Statement-II: Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone. b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone. c) The Question can be answered by both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone. d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together	d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together	Combining both statements does not allow determination of total marks and, consequently, the number of students. Statement I only gives highest and lowest marks, while Statement II implies symmetry around the mean but not the total sum.
67.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number.Question: What are those three numbers?Statement-1: Their sum is less than 23.Statement-II: One of the numbers is 5.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone. b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone. c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone. d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.	Option a is correct: Statement I alone specifies that the sum of the three distinct prime numbers is 23, providing a unique solution (5, 7, 11). Statement II alone is insufficient as it allows multiple combinations. Combining both is unnecessary for determination.
68.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.Question: Is (x + y) an integer?Statement-I: (2x+y) is an integer.Statement-II: (x+2y) is an integer.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by using both Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	Option d is correct: Even with both statements combined, (x + y) may or may not be an integer. Examples of values satisfying both statements can be found where the sum is either integer or non-integer, making determination impossible.
69.	A person buys three articles p, q and r for 50. The price of the article q is 16 which is the least.Question: What is the price of the article p?Statement-I: The cost of p is not more than that of r.Statement-II: The cost of r is not more than that of p.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by the Statements using both together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together	b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone	Option b is correct: Given p + q + r = 50 and q = 16, we derive p + r = 34. Each statement individually is sufficient to deduce p = r = 17, making further use of both statements unnecessary.
70.	A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.P, Q, R and S appeared in a test.Question: Has P scored more marks than Q?Statement-I: The sum of the marks scored by P and Q is equal to the sum of the marks scored by R and S.Statement-II: The sum of the marks scored by P and S is more than the sum of the marks scored by Q and R.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.	Option d is correct: Even with both statements combined, the relative values of P and Q cannot be definitively determined. Statement I relates their sum, and Statement II gives another comparison, but neither allows a direct answer to the question posed.
71.	Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the above passage? a) It is the poetry, not science or religion, which recognizes and accepts imperfections in humans. b) Truth is revealed through science or religion and poetry is anathema to truth. c) Poetry is romantic, imaginary and is about feeling whereas science and religion are about truth. d) In a world of violence, tyranny and bigotry, poetry is a form of dynamic resistance.	a) It is the poetry, not science or religion, which recognizes and accepts imperfections in humans.	Option a is correct because the passage emphasizes that poetry does not rely on absolute truths, which are often unitarian and intolerant of contradictions. Poetry embraces plurality and the existence of contradictions, thereby recognizing and accepting human imperfections, unlike religion and science, which may claim absolute truths.
72.	Based on the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1) The author of the passage believes that flowers are creations of Nature’s luxury. 2) The author of the passage does not believe in the usefulness of flowers except as things of beauty. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	Option d is correct. The passage highlights flowers' functional traits to attract insects for pollination, not for human luxury or aesthetic pleasure. This shows flowers have a utilitarian role, and not just as objects of beauty, invalidating both assumptions presented.
73.	Age of each of P and Q is less than 100 years but more than 10 years. If you interchange the digits of the age of P, the number represents the age of Q.Question: What is the difference of their ages?Statement-I: The age of P is greater than the age of Q.Statement-II: The sum of their ages is 11/6 times their difference. a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone c) The Question can be answered by both the Statements using together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together	a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone	Option a is correct. Statement I shows P > Q but does not provide a specific difference. Statement II, however, gives a clear relation between their ages using a mathematical equation. Solving it provides P's and Q's ages, making Statement II sufficient alone.
74.	Main Statement: Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer.Statement P: Pradeep is a DirectorStatement Q: Pradeep is a Producer.Statement R: Pradeep is not a Director.Statement S: Pradeep is not a Producer.Select the correct answer. a) SP only b) RQ only c) Both SP and RQ d) Neither SP nor RQ	c) Both SP and RQ	Option c is correct. The main statement implies Pradeep is either a Director or a Producer, not both. SP shows Pradeep is not a Producer but is a Director, and RQ shows he is not a Director but is a Producer. Both are consistent with the main statement.
75.	If a+b means a-b; a-b means axb; axb means a/b; a/b means a+b, then what is the value of 10+30-100 x 50÷25? a) 15 b) 0 c) -15 d) -25	d) -25	Option d is correct. Replacing operations as given, the expression 10+30-100x50/25 becomes 10-30x2+25, which evaluates to -25. Thus, option d is the answer.
76.	IIf P means ‘greater than (>)’; Q means less than (<)’; R means ‘not greater than (>)’; S means ‘not less than (<)’ and T means ‘equal to (=)’, then consider the following statements:1. If 2x(S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P)8z.2. If x(Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R)z. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2	d) Neither 1 nor 2	Option d is correct. Statement 1 implies 2x >= 3y and 6x >= 9y, but this is contradicted by 8z >= 9y, making it false. Statement 2 is also incorrect as x < 2y and y <= z does not guarantee x is not greater than z. Thus, neither statement is correct.
77.	If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is IJKL’ written in that code? a) 11880 b) 11240 c) 7920 d) 5940	a) 11880	Option a is correct. The code is based on the product of positions of letters. IJKL = 9x10x11x12 = 11880.
78.	If in a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ATOP and ‘TRAP’ is written as APART, then how is ‘ARENA’ written in that code? a) AARENA b) AANREA c) AANEAR d) AANERA	d) AANERA	Option d is correct. The code adds an 'A' at the beginning and reverses the word. Hence, ARENA becomes AANERA.
79.	What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258? a) 150 b) 155 c) 160 d) 176	b) 155	Option b is correct. The pattern in the sequence shows increasing differences between terms with a second-order difference incrementing by 6. Solving gives the missing term as 155.
80.	In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q-S= 2S and T=R+S+3, then what is the value of P+R-T? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data	b) 2	Option b is correct. From Q-S = 2S, we deduce Q = 3S, and using T = R + S + 3, we find values for S, Q, and R, which leads to calculating P + R - T = 2.

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