UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Question Paper 1 with Answer Key : Download PDF

UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper for GS - I (Paper 1) will be available with Answer Key PDF. The exam for the same was conducted on May 28, 2023 by UPSC from 9:30 AM to 11:30 PM. Check IAS Previous Year Question Paper. This Paper comprises of 100 questions which is of 200 marks.The duration of the exam is 2 hours. Take FREE Mock Test for UPSC IAS.

UPSC Civil Services selection process consists of three stages: Prelims, Mains and Personal Interview. Prelims exam has two papers- GS Paper 1 (100 questions) and CSAT (80 questions). Each of them are objective in nature and consists of 200 marks. Mains consist of a total of 9 papers. All of them are descriptive in nature. The first two papers (Compulsory Indian Language and English) carry 300 marks each while the seven others have 250 marks each. The CSAT paper of Prelims and the first two papers of Mains are qualifying in nature, i.e. their marks are not considered while determining the cutoffs. The Interview stage consists of 275 marks. Check UPSC Prelims Exam detailed Analysis here-

UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 Questions: 

1. In which one of the following region was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Oandhara

(c) Kalinga

(d) Magadha

2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements ：
   1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
   2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
   3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

(a) capital cities

(b) ports

(c) centres of iron-and-steel making

(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

4. Which one of the following explains the practice of *VattakirutaV as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards

(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

5. Consider the following dynasties :

1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) None

6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs :

Literary work                                                                               Author

1. Devichandragupta                      :     Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya                 :     Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha                            :     Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita                            :     Somadeva Suri 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects?

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

 (a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Shaivism

(d} Vaishnavism

8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

(a) Devaraya I

(b) Mallikarjuna

(c) Vira Vijaya

(d) Virupaksha

9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(c) Bahadur Shah

(d) Muhammad Shah

10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

11. In essence, what does ' Due Process of Law' mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

12. Consider the following statements ：

Statement-I :

In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II :

In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II isnot the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-IiscorrectbutStatement-IIis incorrect

(d) Statement-1isincorrectbutStatement-II is correct

13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution* of a country?

(a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

14. In India, which one of the following

Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India ：

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

16. Consider the following statements :

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, alltheacts done by him/her in theperformance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/herassent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Loksabha transmits bill to the RajyaSabha, it can amend or reject the Bill

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits, Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations

3. the case of disagreement, between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill,

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

18. Consider the following statements :

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest

2. hunting is not allowed in such area

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

19. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas'in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
   2.  The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
   3.  The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
   How many of the above statements are correct?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

20. Consider the following statements :
    Statement-I :The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
    Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

21. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-1: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
    Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
    (d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correctbutbut

22. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
    Statement-II:Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrectbut
    (d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correctbut

23. Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that Global Invasive Species develops Global Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
    (a) The International Conservation of Nature Union for Conservation of Nature
    (b) The United Nations Environment Programme
    (c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
    (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

24. Consider the following fauna:
    (a) Lion-tailed Macaque
    (b) Malabar Civet
    (c) Sambar Deer
    How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
    (a) Only one
    (b) Only two
    (c) All three
    (d) None
25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
    (a) Butterflies
    (b) Dragonflies
    (c) Honeybees
    (d) Wasps

26. Consider the following statements:
    1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
    2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
    3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
    4. Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    (a) Only one
    (b) Only two
    (c) Only three
    (d) All four

27. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :
    1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
    2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
    3. They are omnivorous.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    (a) Only one
    (b) Only two
    (c) All three
    (d) None

28. Consider the following statements:
    (a) Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
    (b) Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
    (c) Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    (a) Only one
    (b) Only two
    (c) All three
    (d) None

29. ​Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
    (a) Fishing cat
    (b) Orangutan
    (c) Otter
    (d) Sloth bear

30. Consider the following:
    1. Aerosols
    2. Foam agents
    3. Fire retardants
    4. Lubricants
    In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
    (a) Only one
    (b) Only two
    (c) Only three
    (d) All four

UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper I with Answer Key (May 28, 2023)

The candidates can download the UPSC 2023 GS Paper 1 Question paper with answer key with the links provided below in the table:

UPSC Previous Year Question Papers:

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