Type-I superconductors exhibit a phenomenon known as the Meissner effect. This effect means they completely expel external magnetic fields from their interior when transitioning into the superconducting state.
Complete expulsion of a magnetic field is characteristic of perfect diamagnetism. The magnetic susceptibility (${\chi_m}$) quantifies a material's response to an external magnetic field. For perfect diamagnetism, the magnetic susceptibility is:
$ \chi_m = -1 $
The relative magnetic permeability (${\mu_r}$) is related to the magnetic susceptibility by the formula:
$ \mu_r = 1 + \chi_m $
Substituting the value of susceptibility for a perfect diamagnet (as exhibited by type-I superconductors due to the Meissner effect):
$ \mu_r = 1 + (-1) $
$ \mu_r = 0 $
Therefore, the relative magnetic permeability of a type-I superconductor is 0.
Consider a metal-superconductor junction connected to a dc voltage $V$. At $T < T_c$, where $T_c$ is the superconductor's transition temperature, the current $I$ versus $V$ behavior of this junction is shown schematically in the figure below. If the superconducting energy gap is $D \text{ meV}$. The value of $D$ (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____
The figure schematically shows the $M$ (magnetization) - $H$ (magnetic field) plots for certain types of materials. Here $M$ and $H$ are plotted in the same scale and units. Which one of the following is the most appropriate combination?