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Question

Which of the following statements regarding lymphoedema following breast cancer treatment are correct?
1. Incidence has decreased due to rarely combined therapy of axillary LN dissection and
radiotherapy
2. Precipitating cause like LN metastasis is a major determinant
3. The condition is often painful
4. Oedematous limb is susceptible to bacterial infection
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The correct answer is
1, 3 and 4

Lymphoedema Post-Breast Cancer Treatment Analysis

This solution analyzes the correctness of statements regarding lymphoedema, a potential side effect following breast cancer treatment.

Statement Evaluation

  • Statement 1: Incidence has decreased due to rarely combined therapy of axillary LN dissection and radiotherapy

    This statement is considered correct. Combining axillary lymph node (LN) dissection with radiotherapy significantly increases lymphoedema risk. As treatments evolve, this aggressive combination is used less frequently, leading to a potential decrease in overall lymphoedema incidence compared to past practices.

  • Statement 2: Precipitating cause like LN metastasis is a major determinant

    This statement is considered incorrect. While lymph node metastasis can be a contributing factor or risk indicator, the primary precipitating causes of lymphoedema *following treatment* are the surgical removal of lymph nodes (axillary LN dissection) and/or radiation therapy, which directly damage the lymphatic system.

  • Statement 3: The condition is often painful

    This statement is considered correct. Lymphoedema commonly causes symptoms like limb heaviness, aching, discomfort, and pain, alongside visible swelling.

  • Statement 4: Oedematous limb is susceptible to bacterial infection

    This statement is considered correct. Impaired lymphatic drainage in an oedematous limb creates an environment where bacterial infections, such as cellulitis, are more likely to occur and can be severe.

Conclusion

Based on the analysis, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because treatment itself is typically the direct precipitating cause.

The correct combination of statements is 1, 3, and 4.

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Important Questions from Neck & Breast Surgery

  1. Medical management of thyrotoxic crisis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. First line hormone therapy for post-menopausal woman with metastatic carcinoma breast is:
  3. All of the following are major subtypes of breast cancer based on Gene array analysis EXCEPT:
  4. No increased relative risk of invasive breast carcinoma based on histopathological examination of benign breast tissue is for all of the following EXCEPT:
  5. Which of the following statements regarding Paget's disease of nipple are correct?
    1. It represents benign pathology of nipple areola complex
    2. It is eczema like condition of nipple and areola
    3. Erosion of nipple is seen
    4. Nipple biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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