1. It is usually single.
2. It is related to HPV Types 6 and 11.
3. It can be transmitted sexually.
4. It can involve vagina and anus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Genital Warts (Condyloma Acuminata) — Correct Statements
Condyloma acuminata (genital warts) are soft, papillomatous, cauliflower-like growths caused by infection with the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). Evaluating each statement against standard clinical descriptions:
- Statement 1 — "It is usually single": This is correct. Genital warts typically begin as a solitary small, soft papule at the site of inoculation. Although the lesion may later enlarge, coalesce, or give rise to satellite lesions with a papillary/cauliflower-like surface, the disease classically starts as a single lesion before becoming more extensive.
- Statement 2 — "It is related to HPV Types 6 and 11": This is correct. Low-risk HPV subtypes 6 and 11 are responsible for approximately 90% of genital wart cases, in contrast to high-risk types (16, 18) which are associated with cervical dysplasia and malignancy rather than warts.
- Statement 3 — "It can be transmitted sexually": This is correct. Condyloma acuminata is one of the most common sexually transmitted infections, spread through direct skin-to-skin/mucosal contact during sexual activity.
- Statement 4 — "It can involve vagina and anus": This is correct. Besides the vulva and perineum, lesions commonly extend to involve the vagina, cervix, urethral meatus, and perianal/anal region, particularly with receptive anal intercourse.
Conclusion
All four statements accurately describe features of genital warts. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Important Questions from Infections in Genital Tract
- Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:
- A 30 year old lady, P2L2 presents with painful unilateral swelling in vulva for 3 days. Which
of the following statements are true regarding the above case?
1. Bartholin's abscess may be the likely diagnosis
2. It is to be managed by marsupialisation
3. Gonococcus is the most common pathogenic organism
Select the correct answer using the code given below: - Which of the following is NOT a characteristic clinical feature of Bacterial Vaginosis?
A 22 year old woman comes with complaints of pain and discomfort in vaginal region. On examination there is unilateral tender swelling in the posterior half of labium minus, overlying skin is red and edematous. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- Which of the following are risk factors for developing pelvic inflammatory disease in females ?
1. Use of oral contraception pills
2. Multiple sexual partners
3. Lower socioeconomic status
4. Genetic predisposition
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
