A dealer purchased a washing machine for ₹7,660. If he allows a discount of 20% on the marked price, he sells it at the cost price (no profit, no loss). Then the marked price of the machine is:
₹9,575
Since there is no profit and no loss, the selling price equals the cost price, ₹7,660.
A discount of 20% means the selling price is \(80\%\) of the marked price (MP).
So \(\dfrac{80}{100} \times \text{MP} = 7660\).
\(\text{MP} = \dfrac{7660 \times 100}{80} = \dfrac{766000}{80} = 9575\).
Hence, the marked price of the machine is ₹9,575.
Similar Questions
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Successive discounts of 9% and 6% are equivalent to a single discount of:
Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 2%, 8% and 15%.
A dealer marks his goods at 44% above the cost price and allows a discount of 75% on the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
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B) Buy 1, get 5 free
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Important Questions from Discount and MP
If a trader marks the price of an article 50 percent more than the cost price and allows a discount of 30 percent, then what is his profit percentage?
What will be the selling price of an article if two successive discounts of 15% and 12% are offered on its marked price of Rs. 25,500?
Printed price of a mobile is Rs. 6,400. It is sold in Rs. 2,560 with two consecutive discount. If first discount is 20%, then what is the second discount?
Lekhana saves Rs. 15 on the purchase of a book when a discount of 20% is given. How much did she pay for the book?
What will be the selling price if three successive discounts of 10% is applied on an item marked at Rs 3000?
