The question involves two regression lines fitted using Ordinary Least Squares (OLS) for bivariate data $(y_i, x_i)$.
Analyst A fits $Y$ on $X$: $\hat{Y}_i = \hat{\alpha}_0 + \hat{\alpha}_1 x_i$. The slope is $\hat{\alpha}_1$.
Analyst B fits $X$ on $Y$: $\hat{X}_i = \hat{\beta}_0 + \hat{\beta}_1 y_i$. The slope is $\hat{\beta}_1$.
The slope coefficient for the regression of $Y$ on $X$ is given by $\hat{\alpha}_1 = \frac{\text{Cov}(X, Y)}{\text{Var}(X)}$.
The slope coefficient for the regression of $X$ on $Y$ is given by $\hat{\beta}_1 = \frac{\text{Cov}(X, Y)}{\text{Var}(Y)}$.
Let $r$ be the correlation coefficient between $X$ and $Y$, and let $s_x, s_y$ be their respective standard deviations. The slopes can be expressed as:
$\hat{\alpha}_1 = r \frac{s_y}{s_x}$
$\hat{\beta}_1 = r \frac{s_x}{s_y}$
The product of these slopes is:
$ \hat{\alpha}_1 \times \hat{\beta}_1 = \left( r \frac{s_y}{s_x} \right) \times \left( r \frac{s_x}{s_y} \right) = r^2 $
Since $r^2$ must be between 0 and 1 (inclusive), i.e., $0 \le r^2 \le 1$, the product of the slopes must also satisfy this condition:
$ 0 \le \hat{\alpha}_1 \times \hat{\beta}_1 \le 1 $
We examine the product $\hat{\alpha}_1 \times \hat{\beta}_1$ for each option:
The only pair that satisfies the condition $0 \le \hat{\alpha}_1 \times \hat{\beta}_1 \le 1$ is $(-2.0, -0.4)$.