Consider the following: A 20-year-old dark man has hypopigmented macules over the chest, trunk and back. The KOH examination shows "spaghetti and meatball" appearance. Which of the following drugs will be appropriate in the oral treatment of this condition? 1. Terbinafine 2. Griseofulvin 3. Itraconazole 4. Ketoconazole Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Condition Diagnosis from KOH Test
The presence of hypopigmented macules on the chest, trunk, and back in a young adult, coupled with a KOH examination showing the characteristic "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance, strongly indicates Tinea versicolor (Pityriasis versicolor). This finding is due to the yeast Malassezia species.
Evaluating Oral Treatment Options
The question asks for appropriate oral treatment. Let's assess the provided drugs:
- Terbinafine (1): Primarily used for dermatophyte infections (like ringworm), not typically effective against Malassezia.
- Griseofulvin (2): Also targets dermatophytes and is ineffective for Malassezia infections.
- Itraconazole (3): An oral azole antifungal that is effective against Malassezia and is a suitable option for treating Tinea versicolor, especially in more severe or widespread cases.
- Ketoconazole (4): Another oral azole antifungal with activity against Malassezia. It is considered an appropriate, though sometimes less preferred due to side effects, oral treatment option for Tinea versicolor.
Conclusion on Appropriate Drugs
Based on the efficacy against Malassezia for oral treatment of Tinea versicolor, Itraconazole (3) and Ketoconazole (4) are the appropriate choices.
The correct option combines drugs 3 and 4.
Important Questions from Fungal Infections
- Which of the following opportunistic systemic mycoses is characterized by rapid development of severe tissue necrosis and emerged as specific complication associated with COVID-19 infection in India?
- Which of the following fungal infections is caused by dermal inoculation of the fungal agent, usually from a thorn?
Consider the following statements with regard to coccidioidomycosis:
1. It is a primary systemic mycosis caused by dimorphic fungi Cocci- dioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii.
2. Primary pulmonary coccidioido- mycosis presents with cough, fever, chest pain and arthritis.
3. Progressive pulmonary coccidioido- mycosis presents with constitu- tional symptoms like fever, weight loss, anorexia and features of lobar pneumonia.
4. Coccidioides meningitis is a mild disease, not warranting any treatment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia. He presents with fever, cough, expectoration, chest pain and hemoptysis. His CT scan of chest reveals nodular infiltrates with halo sign and crescent sign. The most useful drug for treating him is
- Consider the following statements with regard to Amphotericin B :
1. It is a narrow spectrum antifungal agent.
2. It can cause nephrotoxicity.
3. It lacks an oral preparation.
4. Its lipid formulations are less toxic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
