Asherman's Syndrome: Identifying the Cause
Asherman's syndrome is a condition characterized by the formation of scar tissue, known as intrauterine adhesions, within the uterus. These adhesions can range from thin bands to complete obliteration of the uterine cavity.
Primary Cause of Asherman's Syndrome
The most common and typical cause of Asherman's syndrome is trauma to the uterine lining. This trauma often results from gynaecological procedures:
- Excessive curettage during dilatation and curettage (D&C): Aggressive or repeated scraping of the endometrium during a D&C procedure can damage the basal layer of the uterus. This damage leads to scar formation, binding the uterine walls together. This procedure is often performed after miscarriage or for diagnostic purposes.
Other Potential Factors
While less typical as the *primary* trigger compared to D&C complications, other factors can contribute or be associated:
- Post-partum haemorrhage: Severe bleeding after childbirth might necessitate procedures like curettage, indirectly linking it, but the curettage itself is the direct cause of trauma.
- Intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD): While IUDs are generally safe, infections or complications associated with them could potentially lead to inflammation and scarring, though this is not the usual cause of Asherman's.
- Prolonged usage of oral contraceptives: Oral contraceptives primarily work hormonally and do not typically cause the physical trauma leading to Asherman's syndrome.
Therefore, excessive curettage during dilatation and curettage is the most direct and frequent cause identified.
Important Questions from Infections in Genital Tract
Which of the following are characteristics of Trichomonas vaginitis?
1. Presence of greenish frothy discharge
2. Vaginal pH > 4.5
3. Presence of clue cells in microscopic examination
4. Strawberry spots on the vaginal mucosa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:
- A 30 year old lady, P2L2 presents with painful unilateral swelling in vulva for 3 days. Which
of the following statements are true regarding the above case?
1. Bartholin's abscess may be the likely diagnosis
2. It is to be managed by marsupialisation
3. Gonococcus is the most common pathogenic organism
Select the correct answer using the code given below: - Which of the following is NOT a characteristic clinical feature of Bacterial Vaginosis?
A 22 year old woman comes with complaints of pain and discomfort in vaginal region. On examination there is unilateral tender swelling in the posterior half of labium minus, overlying skin is red and edematous. What is the most probable diagnosis?
