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Question

A patient with HIV disease presents with fever, malaise and headache of acute onset. CSF examination reveals 20 cells with 80% lymphocytes, protein 100 mg/dl, sugar 35 mg/dl, and a positive India ink preparation. CT head is normal. What is the most appropriate therapy in this patient ?

The correct answer is
Amphotericin-B

HIV Patient Cryptococcal Meningitis Therapy

The patient presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis (fever, malaise, headache) and is known to have HIV disease, indicating a potential opportunistic infection.

CSF Analysis Findings

  • Cell Count: 20 cells (elevated)
  • Differential: 80% lymphocytes (lymphocytic pleocytosis)
  • Protein: $100 \text{ mg/dl}$ (elevated)
  • Sugar: $35 \text{ mg/dl}$ (low)
  • Microscopy: Positive India ink preparation

Diagnosis Rationale

The positive India ink preparation is diagnostic for Cryptococcus neoformans. The CSF profile (lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein, low sugar) is characteristic of cryptococcal meningitis. This is a common and serious complication in patients with advanced HIV disease.

Appropriate Therapy

The standard initial treatment for cryptococcal meningitis in HIV-positive individuals involves an induction phase with an antifungal agent.

  • Amphotericin-B (often combined with flucytosine) is the cornerstone of initial therapy for severe fungal infections like cryptococcal meningitis. It targets the Cryptococcus organism directly.
  • Amoxycillin is an antibiotic and ineffective against fungal infections.
  • Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes virus infections, not fungal meningitis.
  • Anti-tubercular drugs would be appropriate if the India ink were negative and other findings suggested tuberculous meningitis, but the positive India ink rules this out as the primary diagnosis.

Therefore, Amphotericin-B is the most appropriate initial therapy.

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Important Questions from Fungal Infections

  1. Which of the following opportunistic systemic mycoses is characterized by rapid development of severe tissue necrosis and emerged as specific complication associated with COVID-19 infection in India?
  2. Which of the following fungal infections is caused by dermal inoculation of the fungal agent, usually from a thorn?
  3. Consider the following statements with regard to coccidioidomycosis: 

    1. It is a primary systemic mycosis caused by dimorphic fungi Cocci- dioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii. 

    2. Primary pulmonary coccidioido- mycosis presents with cough, fever, chest pain and arthritis. 

    3. Progressive pulmonary coccidioido- mycosis presents with constitu- tional symptoms like fever, weight loss, anorexia and features of lobar pneumonia. 

    4. Coccidioides meningitis is a mild disease, not warranting any treatment. 

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

  4. A patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia. He presents with fever, cough, expectoration, chest pain and hemoptysis. His CT scan of chest reveals nodular infiltrates with halo sign and crescent sign. The most useful drug for treating him is
  5. Consider the following statements with regard to Amphotericin B :
    1. It is a narrow spectrum antifungal agent.
    2. It can cause nephrotoxicity.
    3. It lacks an oral preparation.
    4. Its lipid formulations are less toxic.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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