TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2026 General Studies Answer Key PDF with Detailed Solution (Nov 1, 2026)

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2026 General Studies Answer Key PDF with Detailed Solutions is available following the examination held on November 1, 2026, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Candidates can download the answer key to verify their responses to questions from History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science, and Tamil Nadu-specific topics. The General Studies section had 75 questions carrying 112.5 marks, and the solutions help candidates estimate their scores.

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TNPSC Group 2 General Studies Answer Key 2026 PDF Download

1. Assertion [A]: A novel supramolecular hydrogel which is injectable could be used for precise and targeted drug delivery to destroy breast cancer cells.Reason [R]: It is semisolid under normal conditions, it melts when pressure is applied. But soon after coming out of the needle, it becomes a gel again.

1. [A] is true but [R] is false

2. Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

3. [A] is false, [R] is true

4. Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

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2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the IUBMB system of classification of enzymes.(i) International Union of Biology and Modern Biology(ii) International Union of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology(iii) International Union of Biology and Molecular Biology(iv) International Union of Biochemistry and Modern Biology

1. (i) and (ii) only

2. (ii) only

3. (ii) and (iii) only

4. (iii) and (iv) only

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3. Match the following.

Tribes	Area
(a) Angamis	1. Meghalaya
(b) Todas	2. Tamil Nadu
(c) Moplahs	3. Kerala
(d) Birhors	4. Nagaland
(e) Khasis	5. Madhya Pradesh

1. (a) 4, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 5, (e) 1

2. (a) 5, (b) 4, (c) 3, (d) 2, (e) 1

3. (a) 4, (b) 3, (c) 5, (d) 1, (e) 2

4. (a) 2, (b) 5, (c) 4, (d) 3, (e) 1

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4. Match the following :

(a) National Environmental Policy	1. 2014
(b) National Action Plan on Climate Change	2. 2006
(c) Swachh Bharat Mission Guidelines	3. 2018
(d) Samagra Shiksha Guidelines	4. 2008

1. (a) 3, (b) 1, (c) 4, (d) 2

2. (a) 2, (b) 4, (c) 1, (d) 3

3. (a) 4, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 1

4. (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4

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5. Choose the correct options :Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare includes the(i) Department of Agriculture, Co-operation and Farmers(ii) Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries(iii) Department of Agricultural Research and Education

1. (i), (ii) only

2. (ii), (iii) only

3. (i), (iii) only

4. (i), (ii), (iii)

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6. Arranging chronological order.(1) Death of Ashoka(2) Invasion of Alexander(3) Third Buddhist Council(4) Founding the Mauryan Empire

1. (2), (4), (3), (1)

2. (4), (1), (3), (2)

3. (2), (1), (4), (3)

4. (3), (2), (1), (4)

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7. Choose the right matches among type.(1) Madam Cama - Talwar Journal(2) A.O. Hume - Commonweal(3) Annie Besant - Mother of Indian Revolutionary(4) D.K. Karve - 1^st Women University in India

1. (2) and (3) are correct

2. (1) and (3) are correct

3. (1) and (4) are correct

4. (1) and (2) are correct

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8. Reason and Assertion typeAssertion [A]: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar announced this on 13^th October 1935 at a public meeting at Yeola, in Nasik District, he vowed thatReason [R]: “I am born a Hindu because I could not help it but I assure you that I will not die a Hindu”

1. [A] is true but [R] is false

2. Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

3. [A] is false, [R] is true

4. Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

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9. The Official Newspaper of Muslim League was

1. Star of India

2. The Dawn

3. Qaum

4. Inquilab

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10. Choose the right matches among the following :(1) Omandur P. Ramasamy - Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity Act 1939(2) Rajaji - Agricultural Debt Relief Act(3) Perunthalaivar Kamarajar - Madras Land Reforms Act(4) T.S. Avinashilingam - Self Respect Marriages Legislation Act

1. (1) and (3) are correct

2. (1) and (4) are correct

3. (2) and (3) are correct

4. (3) and (4) are correct

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11. Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution aims at securing not merely political or legal equality, but ________ as well.

1. Social Justice

2. Social Welfare

3. Social Hierarchy

4. Social Security

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12. Assertion [A] and Reason [R] question :Assertion [A]: A Minister at the State level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.Reason [R]: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

1. [A] is false but [R] is true

2. Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

3. [A] is true but [R] is false

4. Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

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13. Match the following :

Articles	Powers of the President
(a) Art. 123	1. Proclamation of Emergency Power
(b) Art. 72	2. Dissolve the House of People
(c) Art. 85	3. Pardoning Power
(d) Art. 352	4. Ordinance making Power

1. (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 1

2. (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 2, (d) 1

3. (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4

4. (a) 4, (b) 3, (c) 2, (d) 1

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14. Which of the following Articles does not reveal the secular character of the Indian state?(i) Article 25(ii) Article 16(iii) Article 28(iv) Article 17

1. (i) and (ii)

2. (ii) only

3. (iii) and (iv)

4. (iv) only

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15. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?(1) The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council Act - 2005(2) The Tamil Nadu Legislative Council Act - 2010(3) The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act - 2021(4) Madhya Pradesh Legislative Council Act - 2024

1. (1) and (2) are correct

2. (2) and (3) are correct

3. (3) and (4) are correct

4. (1) and (3) are correct

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16. Which country was the host for FIDE Chess World Cup 2025?

1. Australia

2. India

3. Japan

4. Russia

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17. Consider the following statements with regard to Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service & Term of Office) Act, 2023 and choose the correct statement.

1. This Act provides that the appointment of Election Commissioners should be done by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the Selection Committee.

2. That Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of opposition in Rajya Sabha, Union Cabinet Minister (nominated by Prime Minister)

3. This Act repealed the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners & Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.

4. Under the new legislation, the Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India is part of the Selection Committee.

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18. Which of the following is/are correct?The South Indian Liberal Federation(i) Dr. C. Natesan was the founder.(ii) Dr. T.M. Nair and Sir. Pitti Theagarayar were the Co-founders.(iii) Shri Rajarathnam was the first President of the Federation.(iv) ‘Andhra Prakasika and Dravidan’ were the magazines of the Federation.

1. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

2. Only (i) is correct

3. (i) and (iv) are correct

4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

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19. Assertion [A]: Poverty remains one of the major problems in India as a result of rapid increase in population.Reason [R]: Socio-economic factors and geographical factors play a part in the extent of poverty.

1. [A] is true but [R] is false

2. Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

3. [A] is false, [R] is true

4. Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

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20. The goal of the “Tamilnadu Housing Scheme for the Poor” is ________.

1. To provide free housing to all low-income families

2. To offer affordable housing to economically weaker groups

3. To promote eco-friendly housings

4. To provide housing loan for farmers

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21. Match the following type

Tamil Nadu Agro Climate Zone	Soil type
(a) Kancheepuram	1. Red loamy
(b) Namakkal	2. Saline coastal
(c) Trichirappalli	3. Red Sandy loam
(d) Kanyakumari	4. Calcareous black

1. 3 4 1 2

2. 1 2 3 4

3. 3 2 1 4

4. 4 3 2 1

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22. In Tamil Nadu, who among the following started first political organization for the depressed classes?

1. M.C. Raja

2. R. Veerayan

3. Rettamalai Srinivasan

4. Ayothidasa Pandithar

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23. Which of the following statements are true regarding Digital Sky platform?(i) Unmanned aircraft system activities(ii) Initiative of Digital India(iii) All drones should be registered with DGCA

1. (i) only

2. (ii) only

3. (i) and (iii) only

4. (ii) and (iii) only

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24. Which among the following are achievements of planning in India?(i) Increase in per capita income(ii) Increase in employment opportunities(iii) Progress in industry(iv) Development of Science and Technology

1. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

2. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

3. (i), (iii) and (iv) only

4. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

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25. Assertion [A]: Modern education played an important role in the rise of reform movements.Reason [R]: Western education introduced ideas of liberty, equality and nationalism.

1. [A] is true but [R] is false

2. Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

3. [A] is false, [R] is true

4. Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

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26. Match the Rural Development Programmes and Year of implementation :

(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme	1. 1983
(b) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme	2. 1980
(c) Antyodaya Anna Yojana	3. 2014
(d) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana	4. 2000

1. 2 1 4 3

2. 2 3 1 4

3. 1 2 3 4

4. 3 1 4 2

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27. Which are the two broad categories grouped in the Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation Programmes (1998–1999)?(i) Self Employment Schemes(ii) Wage Employment Schemes(iii) Employment Generation Schemes

1. (i) and (ii) only

2. (i) and (iii) only

3. (ii) and (iii) only

4. (iii) only

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28. Whom does Valluvar refer to as the one who lives with folded hands and prays to all beings?(i) Meat refuser(ii) Meat eater(iii) Murderer(iv) Loving person

1. (i) and (iv)

2. (ii) and (iii)

3. (iii) and (iv)

4. (iv) only

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29. Match the Organisation with its Founding year :

(a) Madras Hindu Widow Remarriage Association	1. 1852
(b) Madras Mahajana Sabha	2. 1817
(c) Madras Literary Society	3. 1891
(d) Hindu Progressive Improvement Society	4. 1884

1. 2 3 1 4

2. 3 1 4 2

3. 3 4 2 1

4. 1 2 3 4

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30. Which of the following statements are true about Temple Entry Movement?(i) Temple Entry Movement in India initiated in 1920s, was a social reform movement.(ii) It aimed to challenge the discriminatory practice of denying temple entry to lower caste members.(iii) It saw its first major struggle in the Vaikom Satyagraha in 1924.(iv) Gandhi led the 1924 Vaikom Satyagraha.

1. (i) is true

2. (i) and (ii) are true

3. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true

4. All the above are true

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TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2026 General Studies Subject-Wise Solutions

The TNPSC Group 2 General Studies section included questions from six major syllabus units. The detailed answer key helps candidates understand factual and conceptual questions, especially those related to Indian Polity, Tamil Nadu History, and Development Administration. The prescribed subject-wise question distribution is provided below.

How to Calculate TNPSC Group 2 General Studies Marks Using the Answer Key?

Candidates can calculate their estimated General Studies marks by comparing their responses with the November 1 answer key. Each correct answer carries 1.5 marks, while incorrect responses do not attract negative marking. However, a deduction of 0.5 marks applies to questions where no OMR response bubble is shaded. Candidates should mark Option E for questions they do not know, as required by TNPSC instructions.

Estimated General Studies Score = (Correct Answers × 1.5) − Applicable Blank-Response Penalty

For example, if a candidate answers 60 General Studies questions correctly, 10 incorrectly, and marks Option E for the remaining 5 questions, the estimated score will be 90 out of 112.5 marks. Candidates must add their General Tamil or General English and Aptitude marks to calculate the complete preliminary examination score out of 300.

TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2026 General Studies Expected Cutoff

The TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2026 expected cutoff will depend on the difficulty level of the question paper, number of vacancies, category-wise competition, and overall candidate performance. General Studies contributed 112.5 marks to the examination, making it an important section for improving the overall preliminary score.

TNPSC does not prescribe a separate qualifying cutoff for General Studies. Candidates must secure at least 90 marks out of 300 in the complete preliminary examination to meet the minimum qualifying requirement. However, the actual marks required for shortlisting to the Main Examination may be higher.

The expected cutoff can be reviewed following the November 1 examination based on candidate feedback and the difficulty level of the paper. The official selection cutoff will be determined by TNPSC according to its recruitment rules.

TNPSC Group 2 General Studies 2026 Answer Key Challenge Process

Following the examination, TNPSC is expected to publish the tentative answer key on its official website. Candidates should carefully review answers related to constitutional provisions, historical events, government schemes, and Tamil Nadu-specific facts. If they identify an incorrect response, they can submit an objection within the period notified by the commission.

Candidates should provide reliable supporting documents while challenging an answer. TNPSC will review the objections and finalize the answers used for evaluation. The official final answer key will serve as the basis for determining correct responses.

TNPSC Group 2 General Studies Answer Key 2026 FAQs

Ques: How many marks are allocated to Tamil Nadu-specific subjects in TNPSC Group 2 General Studies?

Ques: Can candidates calculate their complete TNPSC Group 2 Prelims score using only the General Studies answer key?

Ques: What happens if a current affairs question in TNPSC Group 2 General Studies has an outdated or incorrect answer?

Ques: Is scoring 75 marks in General Studies enough to qualify for TNPSC Group 2 Mains 2026?