The question asks for an anticoagulant that is both a direct thrombin (Factor IIa) inhibitor and administered by the oral route. The correct answer is Dabigatran.
Since the question specifically asks for an oral direct thrombin inhibitor, Argatroban is excluded despite sharing the same mechanism, because it is IV-only. Dabigatran is the correct answer as it uniquely combines the direct thrombin-inhibiting mechanism with oral bioavailability.
A young primigravida with 11 weeks pregnancy presents with sudden onset pain and swelling of left lower limb. Homan's sign is positive. Duplex ultrasonogram shows non- compressibility of veins in the affected region, with absent flow. The drug of choice for treatment is: