The function f : X → Y defined by f(x) = cos x, where x ∈ X, is one-one and onto if X and Y are respectively equal to
[0, π] and [-1, 1]
The question asks for the specific domain X and codomain Y such that the function \( f(x) = \cos x \) defined from X to Y is both one-one (injective) and onto (surjective).
A function \( f: X \to Y \) is:
For a function to be both one-one and onto, it must be a bijection. For \( f(x) = \cos x \) to be a bijection from X to Y, it must be one-one on X and its range on X must be exactly Y.
Let's consider the graph of \( y = \cos x \).
| x (radians) | \( \cos x \) |
|---|---|
| 0 | 1 |
| \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) | 0 |
| \( \pi \) | -1 |
| \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \) | 0 |
| \( 2\pi \) | 1 |
The cosine function is periodic with period \( 2\pi \). The standard range of \( \cos x \) over its natural domain (all real numbers) is \( [-1, 1] \). It decreases from 1 to -1 on the interval \( [0, \pi] \) and increases from -1 to 1 on the interval \( [\pi, 2\pi] \). It is not one-one over larger intervals like \( [0, 2\pi] \) because, for example, \( \cos(0) = \cos(2\pi) = 1 \) but \( 0 \ne 2\pi \).
For \( \cos x \) to be one-one, we need to restrict its domain to an interval where it is strictly monotonic (either strictly increasing or strictly decreasing). The standard interval chosen for defining the principal value branch of the inverse cosine function (arccosine) is \( [0, \pi] \). On this interval, \( \cos x \) strictly decreases from 1 to -1. Thus, if \( x_1, x_2 \in [0, \pi] \) and \( x_1 \ne x_2 \), then \( \cos x_1 \ne \cos x_2 \). So, \( f(x) = \cos x \) is one-one on \( [0, \pi] \).
Other intervals where \( \cos x \) is one-one also exist, like \( [-\pi, 0] \) (strictly increasing), \( [\pi, 2\pi] \) (strictly increasing), etc., but \( [0, \pi] \) is a common choice.
For \( f(x) = \cos x \) to be onto the codomain Y, the range of \( f(x) \) on the chosen domain X must be equal to Y.
On the interval \( X = [0, \pi] \), the minimum value of \( \cos x \) is \( \cos(\pi) = -1 \) and the maximum value is \( \cos(0) = 1 \). Since \( \cos x \) is continuous on \( [0, \pi] \), by the Intermediate Value Theorem, it takes every value between -1 and 1. Therefore, the range of \( \cos x \) on \( [0, \pi] \) is the closed interval \( [-1, 1] \).
For \( f(x) = \cos x \) to be onto when its domain is \( [0, \pi] \), the codomain Y must be equal to its range, which is \( [-1, 1] \).
Let's examine each option based on our analysis of the cosine function being one-one on X and its range on X being equal to Y:
Option 1: \( X = [0, \pi] \) and \( Y = [-1, 1] \)
This option satisfies both conditions. For \( X = [0, \pi] \) and \( Y = [-1, 1] \), \( f(x) = \cos x \) is both one-one and onto.
Option 2: \( X = \left[ - \frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{2},\frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{2}} \right] \) and \( Y = [-1, 1] \)
This option is incorrect.
Option 3: \( X = [0, \pi] \) and \( Y = (-1, 1) \)
This option is incorrect.
Option 4: \( X = [0, \pi] \) and \( Y = [0, 1] \)
This option is incorrect.
Based on the analysis, the function \( f(x) = \cos x \) is one-one and onto if and only if its domain is \( [0, \pi] \) and its codomain is \( [-1, 1] \).
| Domain Interval (X) | Range on X | Is \( \cos x \) One-one on X? | Is \( \cos x \) Onto Codomain Y? | (X, Y) from Options | Is it Bijective for (X, Y)? |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| \( [0, \pi] \) | \( [-1, 1] \) | Yes | Yes, if \( Y = [-1, 1] \) | Option 1: \( ([0, \pi], [-1, 1]) \) | Yes |
| \( [-\pi/2, \pi/2] \) | \( [0, 1] \) | No | Yes, if \( Y = [0, 1] \) | Option 2: \( ([-\pi/2, \pi/2], [-1, 1]) \) | No |
| \( [0, \pi] \) | \( [-1, 1] \) | Yes | No, if \( Y = (-1, 1) \) | Option 3: \( ([0, \pi], (-1, 1)) \) | No |
| \( [0, \pi] \) | \( [-1, 1] \) | Yes | No, if \( Y = [0, 1] \) | Option 4: \( ([0, \pi], [0, 1]) \) | No |
Understanding function mapping is fundamental in mathematics. A function \( f: X \to Y \) establishes a relationship between elements of set X (the domain) and elements of set Y (the codomain).
For trigonometric functions like \( \cos x \), their periodic nature means they are not one-one over their entire natural domain \( (-\infty, \infty) \). To define inverse functions, we restrict the domain to an interval where the function becomes one-one and restrict the codomain to the range on that specific domain, making it onto. For \( \cos x \), the standard interval for the domain restriction to achieve bijectivity is \( [0, \pi] \), which results in the range \( [-1, 1] \).
Consider the following statements:
1. The relation f defined by \(f(x)= \begin{cases}x^3, & 0 \leq x \leq 2 \\ 4 x, & 2 \leq x \leq 8\end{cases}\) is a function.
2. The relation g defined by \(g(x)= \begin{cases}x^2, & 0 \leq x \leq 4 \\ 3 x, & 4 \leq x \leq 8\end{cases}\) is a function.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A function satisfies \(f(x-y)=\frac{f(x)}{f(y)}\), where f(y) ≠ 0. If f(1) = 0.5, then what is f(2) + f(3) + f(4) + f(5) + f(6) equal to ?
A mapping f : A → B defined as \(f(x)=\frac{2 x+3}{3 x+5}, x \in A\) If f is to be onto, then what are A and B equal to ?
If f(x) = x(4x2 - 3), then what is f(sinθ) equal to ?
Let R be a relation on the set N of natural numbers defined by ‘nRm ⟺ n is a factor of m’. Then which one of the following is correct?