Question
Disease modifying agent of choice for the peripheral manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis is:
The correct answer is
Leflunomide
Disease Modifying Agent for Ankylosing Spondylitis Peripheral Symptoms
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a chronic inflammatory condition primarily affecting the spine, but it can also involve peripheral joints, tendons, and entheses.
Managing Peripheral Manifestations in AS
Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are crucial for managing the inflammatory activity and preventing joint damage in AS. When focusing on the peripheral manifestations, specific DMARDs are considered based on efficacy and patient factors.
Evaluating Disease Modifying Agents for Peripheral AS
Let's review the provided options:
- Methotrexate: While commonly used for rheumatoid arthritis, it may be used off-label for peripheral arthritis in AS, but it is not typically the primary agent of choice.
- Hydroxychloroquine: This DMARD is mainly effective for rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. It has limited efficacy for the peripheral arthritis seen in AS.
- Sulfasalazine: This is a recognized treatment option for peripheral arthritis associated with ankylosing spondylitis and is often considered.
- Leflunomide: This DMARD has demonstrated effectiveness in treating peripheral arthritis within the spectrum of spondyloarthropathies, including ankylosing spondylitis. It targets inflammatory pathways relevant to these conditions.
Conclusion on Agent of Choice
Considering the options for treating the peripheral manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis, Leflunomide is considered an appropriate and effective disease-modifying agent.
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Important Questions from Arthritis
- Which of the following statements regarding Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) are true?
1. AS occurs in about 10 % of Inflammatory Bowel Disease(IBD) patients
2. The AS activity is related to Bowel activity in IBD patients
3. The AS activity does remit with glucocorticoids or colectomy in IBD patients
Select the correct answer using the code given below: - Which of the following statements about “Early onset Osteoarthritis” are true?
1. Onset is usually before the age of 55 years
2. There is clear history of previous trauma
3. In most cases, single joint is affected
Select the correct answer using the code given below: - A 31-year young man presents with fever, weight loss, pain with swelling of knee joint and low backache with stiffness. Three weeks earlier, he was treated for symptoms of urinary tract infection by local practitioner. The joint aspirate is leucocyte rich and contains multinucleated macrophages. His urine culture is sterile. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- Consider the following statements regarding Gout in old age.
1. Most of older patients have gout secondary to diuretic use and chronic kidney disease
2. Joints of the upper limbs are more frequently affected
3. Presentation is typical with acute attack of gout
Which of the statements given above are correct? - A 28-year old woman complains of arthritis involving bilateral metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal and wrist joints of one year duration. The most likely disease entity is:
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