Authorised capital of a company is Rs. 5 lacs; 40% of it is paid up. Loss incurred during the year is Rs. 50,000. Accumulated loss carried from last year is Rs. 2 lac. The company has a Tangible Net Worth of:
The question asks us to calculate the Tangible Net Worth of a company based on its authorised capital, paid-up capital percentage, current year loss, and accumulated loss from previous years.
Tangible Net Worth is a measure of a company's worth that excludes intangible assets like goodwill, patents, trademarks, etc. It is typically calculated as:
Shareholder's Funds, also known as Net Worth, generally include Share Capital (Equity and Preference), Reserves and Surplus, less Accumulated Losses and Miscellaneous Expenditure not written off.
In this problem, we are given information about share capital and losses. There is no mention of reserves, surplus, intangible assets, or miscellaneous expenditure. Therefore, we will assume:
The authorised capital of the company is Rs. 5 lacs.
The paid-up capital is given as 40% of the authorised capital.
Paid-up Capital = 40% of Rs. 5,00,000
Calculation:
\begin{equation*} \text{Paid-up Capital} = \frac{40}{100} \times 5,00,000 \end{equation*}
\begin{equation*} \text{Paid-up Capital} = 0.40 \times 5,00,000 \end{equation*}
\begin{equation*} \text{Paid-up Capital} = 2,00,000 \text{ Rs.} \end{equation*}
So, the Paid-up Capital is Rs. 2,00,000.
The question provides two components of loss:
Total Accumulated Losses = Loss incurred during the year + Accumulated loss carried from last year
Calculation:
\begin{equation*} \text{Total Accumulated Losses} = 50,000 + 2,00,000 \end{equation*}
\begin{equation*} \text{Total Accumulated Losses} = 2,50,000 \text{ Rs.} \end{equation*}
The total accumulated losses amount to Rs. 2,50,000.
Now we can calculate the Tangible Net Worth using the formula for Shareholder's Funds (Net Worth) assuming no intangible assets, reserves, or miscellaneous expenditure.
Shareholder's Funds = Paid-up Share Capital − Total Accumulated Losses
Calculation:
\begin{equation*} \text{Shareholder's Funds} = 2,00,000 - 2,50,000 \end{equation*}
\begin{equation*} \text{Shareholder's Funds} = -50,000 \text{ Rs.} \end{equation*}
Since Tangible Net Worth = Shareholder's Funds (assuming no intangible assets),
\begin{equation*} \text{Tangible Net Worth} = -50,000 \text{ Rs.} \end{equation*}
The Tangible Net Worth of the company is Rs. (-)50,000.
Let's summarise the values in a table:
| Item | Amount (Rs.) |
|---|---|
| Authorised Capital | 5,00,000 |
| Paid-up Capital (40% of Authorised Capital) | 2,00,000 |
| Loss incurred during the year | 50,000 |
| Accumulated loss carried from last year | 2,00,000 |
| Total Accumulated Losses | 2,50,000 |
| Tangible Net Worth (Paid-up Capital - Total Accumulated Losses) | -50,000 |
Comparing this result with the given options, we find that Rs. (-)50,000 matches one of the choices.
| Concept | Definition/Formula |
|---|---|
| Authorised Capital | The maximum amount of share capital a company is allowed to issue. |
| Paid-up Capital | The amount of capital that shareholders have actually paid to the company. |
| Accumulated Loss | The total losses incurred by a company over its existence, carried forward in the balance sheet. |
| Shareholder's Funds (Net Worth) | Represents the owner's stake in the company; calculated as Assets − Liabilities or Share Capital + Reserves − Accumulated Losses − Miscellaneous Expenditure. |
| Tangible Net Worth | Shareholder's Funds − Intangible Assets. Indicates the company's net worth backed by physical assets. |
Understanding a company's Tangible Net Worth is crucial for financial analysis and valuation. It provides a view of the company's value based purely on its physical assets and liabilities, excluding subjective valuations of intangible assets.
Calculating Tangible Net Worth helps in understanding the equity value attributable to tangible assets, which is a more conservative measure compared to total net worth that includes intangibles.
The following two statements relate to receivables management. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: The major controllable decision variables for deciding the credit policy are the credit standards and analysis and the credit terms only.
Statement II : Factoring is a popular mechanism of managing, financing and collecting receivables.
The following two statements relate to financial derivatives. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: When an option is allowed to be exercised only on the maturity date, it is called an American option.
Statement II : If the option holder does not lose or gain whether he exercises his option or buys or sells the asset from the market, the option is said to be at-the-money.
The given statements are related to financial derivatives. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: A speculator will gain, if he sells foreign currency under a forward contract, when the spot price is higher than the forward price.
Statement II : In currency futures, intra currency spread exists when a speculator buys/sells the same currency for two delivery dates.
Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):
Assertion (A): Investors in the capital market now have a higher inclination for investment in debentures.
Reasoning (R): Debentures have active secondary markets now.
Indicate the code for proper sequencing for the process of venture capital financing from the following :
(i) Deal origination
(ii) Due diligence
(iii) Screening
(iv) Deal structuring
(v) Exit plan
Choose the correct answer from the code given below: