What is the market price per share (face value = Rs. 100) as per Walter model if the profitability rate of the company is 16 percent, payout ratio is 80 percent and the cost of capital is 10 percent?
The Walter model is a dividend model that suggests the dividend policy of a firm affects its market price per share. It posits that the market price is the sum of the present value of future dividends and the present value of future earnings retained and reinvested by the firm. The model highlights the relationship between the firm's rate of return on investments (\(r\)) and the cost of equity or required rate of return (\(K_e\)).
According to the Walter model, the market price per share (\(P\)) is calculated using the following formula:
\( P = \frac{D + \frac{r}{K_e}(E-D)}{K_e} \)
Where:
Let's identify the values given in the question:
First, we need to determine the Earnings Per Share (\(E\)) and Dividend Per Share (\(D\)). Assuming the profitability rate is applied to the face value to determine earnings:
Earnings Per Share (\(E\)) = Face Value \(\times\) Profitability Rate
\( E = 100 \times 0.16 = \text{Rs. } 16 \)
Dividend Per Share (\(D\)) = Earnings Per Share \(\times\) Payout Ratio
\( D = 16 \times 0.80 = \text{Rs. } 12.80 \)
Now we have all the necessary components to apply the Walter model formula.
Substitute the calculated and given values into the Walter model formula:
\( P = \frac{D + \frac{r}{K_e}(E-D)}{K_e} \)
\( P = \frac{12.80 + \frac{0.16}{0.10}(16 - 12.80)}{0.10} \)
Calculate the term \(\frac{r}{K_e}\):
\( \frac{0.16}{0.10} = 1.6 \)
Calculate the retained earnings per share (\(E-D\)):
\( 16 - 12.80 = 3.20 \)
Substitute these values back into the formula:
\( P = \frac{12.80 + 1.6(3.20)}{0.10} \)
Calculate the term \(1.6 \times 3.20\):
\( 1.6 \times 3.20 = 5.12 \)
Substitute this back into the numerator:
\( P = \frac{12.80 + 5.12}{0.10} \)
Sum the terms in the numerator:
\( 12.80 + 5.12 = 17.92 \)
Finally, divide the numerator by the cost of capital (\(K_e\)):
\( P = \frac{17.92}{0.10} = 179.20 \)
Thus, the market price per share as per the Walter model is Rs. 179.20.
| Component | Value | Calculation/Given |
|---|---|---|
| Face Value | Rs. 100 | Given |
| Profitability Rate (\(r\)) | 16% (0.16) | Given |
| Cost of Capital (\(K_e\)) | 10% (0.10) | Given |
| Payout Ratio | 80% (0.80) | Given |
| Earnings Per Share (\(E\)) | Rs. 16 | \(100 \times 0.16\) |
| Dividend Per Share (\(D\)) | Rs. 12.80 | \(16 \times 0.80\) |
| Retained Earnings (\(E-D\)) | Rs. 3.20 | \(16 - 12.80\) |
| \(\frac{r}{K_e}\) Ratio | 1.6 | \(0.16 / 0.10\) |
| Market Price (\(P\)) | Rs. 179.20 | Calculated |
| Component | Symbol | Description |
|---|---|---|
| Market Price per Share | \(P\) | The value of one share of the company in the market. |
| Dividend per Share | \(D\) | The amount of earnings paid out to shareholders per share. |
| Earnings per Share | \(E\) | The amount of company's profit allocated to each outstanding share. |
| Profitability Rate | \(r\) | The rate of return the company earns on its investments. |
| Cost of Equity Capital | \(K_e\) | The minimum rate of return a company must earn on an investment to satisfy its investors. |
The Walter model operates under several simplifying assumptions, including that the firm has an infinite life, its business risk remains constant, and all financing is done through retained earnings or internal accruals (no external debt or equity). A key insight from the model is how the relationship between \(r\) and \(K_e\) influences optimal dividend policy:
In this specific problem, \(r\) (0.16) is greater than \(K_e\) (0.10), which suggests that retaining earnings would be beneficial. However, the question asks for the price given a specific payout ratio (80%), not the optimal policy. The calculation shows the market price based on the given conditions.
A company's share is currently selling for Rs. 50 and is expecting a dividend of Rs. 3 per share after one year which is expected to grow at 8% indefinitely. What is the equity capitalisation rate?
The following two statements relate to receivables management. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: The major controllable decision variables for deciding the credit policy are the credit standards and analysis and the credit terms only.
Statement II : Factoring is a popular mechanism of managing, financing and collecting receivables.
The following two statements relate to financial derivatives. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: When an option is allowed to be exercised only on the maturity date, it is called an American option.
Statement II : If the option holder does not lose or gain whether he exercises his option or buys or sells the asset from the market, the option is said to be at-the-money.
The given statements are related to financial derivatives. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: A speculator will gain, if he sells foreign currency under a forward contract, when the spot price is higher than the forward price.
Statement II : In currency futures, intra currency spread exists when a speculator buys/sells the same currency for two delivery dates.
Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):
Assertion (A): Investors in the capital market now have a higher inclination for investment in debentures.
Reasoning (R): Debentures have active secondary markets now.