The problem asks for the probability of measuring a spin $\frac{1}{2}$ particle in a spin-up state along a specific direction $\hat{x}'$, given that it is initially in a spin-up state along the $x$-axis.
The initial state is given as spin up along the $x$-axis, denoted by $|\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\rangle_x$. This state is an eigenstate of the spin operator $S_x$ with eigenvalue $+\frac{\hbar}{2}$. In the standard basis of spin-up $|\uparrow_z\rangle$ and spin-down $|\downarrow_z\rangle$ states along the $z$-axis, this state is expressed as:
$ |\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\rangle_x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (|\uparrow_z\rangle + |\downarrow_z\rangle) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} $
The measurement is performed along the direction $\hat{x}'$, which lies in the $xy$-plane and forms an angle $\theta$ with the positive $x$-axis. The direction vector is $\hat{n} = (\cos\theta, \sin\theta, 0)$. The spin-up state along this direction, $|\uparrow_{\hat{x}'}\rangle$, is:
$ |\uparrow_{\hat{x}'}\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ e^{i\theta} \end{pmatrix} $
The probability $P$ of measuring the spin-up state along $\hat{x}'$ is the squared magnitude of the probability amplitude (the inner product of the states):
$ P = |\langle \uparrow_{\hat{x}'} | \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\rangle_x|^2 $
First, calculate the probability amplitude:
$ \langle \uparrow_{\hat{x}'} | \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\rangle_x = \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & e^{-i\theta} \end{pmatrix} \right) \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \right) $
$ = \frac{1}{2} (1 \cdot 1 + e^{-i\theta} \cdot 1) = \frac{1}{2}(1 + e^{-i\theta}) $
Next, calculate the probability by squaring the magnitude of this amplitude:
$ P = \left|\frac{1}{2}(1 + e^{-i\theta})\right|^2 = \frac{1}{4} |1 + e^{-i\theta}|^2 $
Using $|z|^2 = z z^*$ and the identity $e^{i\phi} + e^{-i\phi} = 2\cos\phi$:
$ |1 + e^{-i\theta}|^2 = (1 + e^{-i\theta})(1 + e^{i\theta}) = 1 + e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta} + 1 = 2 + 2\cos\theta $
Substituting this result back into the probability expression:
$ P = \frac{1}{4} (2 + 2\cos\theta) = \frac{1}{2}(1 + \cos\theta) $
Finally, applying the half-angle trigonometric identity $1 + \cos\theta = 2\cos^2(\frac{\theta}{2})$:
$ P = \frac{1}{2} \left( 2\cos^2\left(\frac{\theta}{2}\right) \right) = \cos^2\left(\frac{\theta}{2}\right) $
The probability of finding the particle in a spin-up state along $\hat{x}'$ is $\cos^2(\frac{\theta}{2})$.
Consider two non-identical spin $\frac{1}{2}$ particles labelled $1$ and $2$ in the spin product state $|\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\rangle_1 |\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\rangle$. The Hamiltonian of the system is
$H = \frac{4\lambda}{\hbar^2} \vec{S}_1 \cdot \vec{S}_2$,
where $\vec{S}_1$ and $\vec{S}_2$ are the spin operators of particles $1$ and $2$, respectively, and $\lambda$ is a constant with appropriate dimensions. What is the expectation value of $H$ in the above state?
An electron with mass $m$ and charge $q$ is in the spin up state $\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}$ at time $t = 0$. A constant magnetic field is applied along the y-axis, $\vec{B} = B_0 \hat{j}$, where $B_0$ is a constant. The Hamiltonian of the system is $H = -\hbar \omega \sigma_y$, where $\omega = \frac{q B_0}{2m} > 0$ and $\sigma_y = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -i \\ i & 0 \end{pmatrix}$. The minimum time after which the electron will be in the spin down state along the x-axis, i.e., $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}$, is
Consider a spin $S = \hbar/2$ particle in the state $| \phi \rangle = \frac{1}{3} \begin{bmatrix}2 + i \\2 \end{bmatrix} $. The probability that a measurement finds the state with $S_x = + \hbar/2$ is