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Question

A pack contains 6 cards numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Four cards are drawn one by one at random without replacement. What is the probability that the card numbered 1 is drawn in the selected four cards?

The correct answer is \(\frac{4}{6}\)

Probability of Card 1 Selection

The problem asks for the probability that card number 1 is among the four cards drawn from a pack containing 6 cards numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The drawing is done one by one without replacement.

We are drawing 4 cards out of a total of 6 cards. We want to find the probability that the specific card numbered 1 is included in the set of 4 cards that are drawn.

Consider the 6 cards as distinct items. When we draw 4 cards without replacement, we are essentially selecting a subset of 4 cards from the 6. Each card in the original pack of 6 has an equal chance of being part of the selected group of 4 cards.

Out of the 6 cards available, 4 cards are selected. The probability that any particular card (like card number 1) is among the selected cards is the ratio of the number of cards selected to the total number of cards available.

The total number of cards in the pack is 6.

The number of cards drawn is 4.

The probability that card number 1 is drawn in the selected four cards can be directly calculated using the ratio:

Probability (Card 1 is drawn) = \(\frac{\text{Number of cards drawn}}{\text{Total number of cards}}\)

Probability (Card 1 is drawn) = \(\frac{4}{6}\)

This fraction can be simplified to \(\frac{2}{3}\), but the option is given as \(\frac{4}{6}\).

Let's consider an alternative way to think about this using combinations, although the direct ratio method is simpler here:

  • Total number of ways to choose 4 cards from 6 is given by the combination formula \({}^nC_r = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}\).
    Total combinations = \({}^6C_4 = \frac{6!}{4!(6-4)!} = \frac{6!}{4!2!} = \frac{6 \times 5}{2 \times 1} = 15\).
  • Number of ways to choose 4 cards such that card 1 is included: We must select card 1 (\({}^1C_1 = 1\)), and then select the remaining 3 cards from the other 5 cards (\({}^5C_3 = \frac{5!}{3!2!} = \frac{5 \times 4}{2 \times 1} = 10\)).
    Favorable combinations = \({}^1C_1 \times {}^5C_3 = 1 \times 10 = 10\).
  • The probability is the ratio of favorable combinations to total combinations.
    Probability = \(\frac{10}{15} = \frac{2}{3}\).

Both methods yield the probability \(\frac{2}{3}\), which is equivalent to \(\frac{4}{6}\).

Thus, the probability that the card numbered 1 is drawn in the selected four cards is \(\frac{4}{6}\).

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Important Questions from Numerical Ability

  1. Arrange in the correct sequence the Percentage method of recipe adjustment.

    (i) Determine the total weight of the product needed.
    (ii) Calculate the percentage of each ingredient in relation to total weight.
    (iii) Convert all ingredients in recipe to gram unit and determine edible portion.
    (iv) Check the ratio of ingredients which should be in proper balance.
    (v) Multiply each percentage number by the total weight to give exact amount of the ingredient needed.
    (vi) Total the weight of ingredients using edible portion.

    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
  2. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have:

    passed in all five subjects = 5583

    passed in three subjects only = 1400

    passed in two subjects only = 1200

    passed in one subject only = 735

    failed in English only = 75

    failed in Physics only = 145

    failed in Chemistry only = 140

    failed in Mathematics only = 200

    failed in Bio-science only = 157

    The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:

  3. Four identical cones with base diameter of 10 cm are compactly placed inside a box in upright position. What will be the area of square (in cm2) formed by connecting tips of the cones?
  4. How many hollow spheres having inner radius of 1 cm can be completely filled by transferring water from a completely filled hollow sphere having inner diameter of 20 cm ?

  5. The period of a pendulum is given as T = 2 π (l/g)1/2 where g = 9.81 m/s2 and π = 3.1416. The period of a pendulum of length 1 m correct to the first place of decimal in seconds is

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