A 35 year old man with history of alcoholism presents with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and global confusion. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
The patient presents with ophthalmoplegia (paralysis of eye muscles), ataxia (loss of muscle coordination), and global confusion. This triad of symptoms, especially in the context of a history of alcoholism, strongly suggests Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Wernicke's encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition caused by a deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcoholism impairs thiamine absorption and utilization, leading to this deficiency.
The standard and most critical treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy is the prompt administration of thiamine.
Therefore, intravenous (I.V.) thiamine is the treatment of choice.
Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome :
1. It is a rare complication of chronic alcohol misuse characterised by opthalmoplegia, ataxia and delirium.
2. There is damage to the mammillary bodies and dorsomedial nuclei of thalamus.
3. The underlying cause is deficiency of Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin).
4. The syndrome can also arise due to malabsorption or protracted vomiting.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: