A 13-year-old obese girl presents with amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) and cyclical abdominal pain. Importantly, her secondary sexual characteristics are well-developed, suggesting adequate estrogen production.
The combination of amenorrhea, cyclical abdominal pain, and normal secondary sexual characteristics in an adolescent strongly suggests an obstructive cause within the reproductive outflow tract. This means menstruation is occurring cyclically, but the menstrual blood cannot exit the vagina. Such an obstruction can lead to a buildup of blood (hematocolpos) behind the obstruction, causing cyclical pain.
Given the patient's age and marital status, a pelvic examination might be challenging. Therefore, the per-rectal examination is often the most appropriate initial step. It allows the clinician to:
Therefore, carrying out a per-rectal examination is the most crucial next step to investigate the cause of her symptoms.
The other options are less appropriate as the immediate next step:
The correct answer is Option 3, as indicated by the analysis.
Which of the following are correct regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?
1. Inherited as X-linked recessive disorder
2. Karyotype is 46 XXY
3. It is also called testicular feminization
4. Confirmation of diagnosis by gonadal biopsy
Select the answer using the code given below.