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Question

A 13-year-old, obese, unmarried girl presents with the history of amenorrhea and cyclical abdominal pain. On examination, the secondary sex characters are found to be well developed. What should be the next step?

The correct answer is
Carry out a per-rectal examination

Adolescent Amenorrhea and Abdominal Pain: Clinical Evaluation

A 13-year-old obese girl presents with amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) and cyclical abdominal pain. Importantly, her secondary sexual characteristics are well-developed, suggesting adequate estrogen production.

Clinical Assessment Rationale

The combination of amenorrhea, cyclical abdominal pain, and normal secondary sexual characteristics in an adolescent strongly suggests an obstructive cause within the reproductive outflow tract. This means menstruation is occurring cyclically, but the menstrual blood cannot exit the vagina. Such an obstruction can lead to a buildup of blood (hematocolpos) behind the obstruction, causing cyclical pain.

Given the patient's age and marital status, a pelvic examination might be challenging. Therefore, the per-rectal examination is often the most appropriate initial step. It allows the clinician to:

  • Palpate for a distended vagina (hematocolpos) suggestive of an outflow tract obstruction (e.g., imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum).
  • Assess the position and contour of the uterus and cervix indirectly.

Therefore, carrying out a per-rectal examination is the most crucial next step to investigate the cause of her symptoms.

Evaluating Other Options

The other options are less appropriate as the immediate next step:

  • Progesterone challenge test: This assesses estrogen status but doesn't address the likely obstruction causing cyclical pain. It's more relevant when evaluating causes of amenorrhea due to hypoestrogenism.
  • Assess TSH and Prolactin levels: While hormonal imbalances can cause amenorrhea, the presence of cyclical pain and developed secondary sexual characteristics makes conditions like hypothyroidism or hyperprolactinemia less likely as the primary cause. These tests might be considered later if an outflow obstruction is ruled out.
  • Observation for three months: The symptoms of amenorrhea and significant cyclical pain warrant active investigation, not observation, as this could lead to complications like endometriosis or worsening pain.

The correct answer is Option 3, as indicated by the analysis.

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Important Questions from Developmental Disorders

  1. Which of the following are correct regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? 

    1. Inherited as X-linked recessive disorder 

    2. Karyotype is 46 XXY 

    3. It is also called testicular feminization 

    4. Confirmation of diagnosis by gonadal biopsy 

    Select the answer using the code given below.

  2. A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhoea presents to the gynaecology OPD for evaluation. She has normal secondary sexual characters. Her karyotype is 46,XX and ultrasound reveals normal ovaries and tubes but absent uterus. What is her clinical diagnosis?
  3. The Gartner's duct cyst is usually located in
  4. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Gastroschisis?
  5. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is:
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