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Question

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Gastroschisis?

The correct answer is
It is a ruptured exomphalos

Gastroschisis Characteristics

  • Gastroschisis is a congenital defect involving protrusion of abdominal organs.
  • The defect is a specific abdominal wall opening, typically small and located to the right of the umbilical cord.
  • A key feature is the absence of a covering membrane (like peritoneum or amnion) over the protruding organs.
  • The exposed organs, primarily the midgut (small intestine), are directly visible and unprotected.

Exomphalos Definition

  • Exomphalos (omphalocele) is another congenital abdominal wall defect.
  • It involves protrusion of abdominal organs through the umbilical ring.
  • Unlike gastroschisis, exomphalos presents with a sac covering the protruding organs, consisting of peritoneum and amnion.

Incorrect Statement Evaluation

The question asks for the statement that is NOT correct about Gastroschisis.

  • Option 1: It is a ruptured exomphalos - This statement is NOT correct. Gastroschisis is a primary abdominal wall defect, separate from exomphalos. It is not caused by the rupture of an exomphalos sac. The defining characteristics (defect location, absence of membrane) differ significantly.
  • Option 2: Gut has herniated through a defect to right of umbilicus - This statement is correct. This location is typical for gastroschisis.
  • Option 3: Normally limited to midgut - This statement is correct. The defect primarily affects the small intestine (midgut).
  • Option 4: There is no covering membrane - This statement is correct. This lack of a membrane is a hallmark feature distinguishing gastroschisis.

Based on the analysis, the incorrect statement is that gastroschisis is a ruptured exomphalos.

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Important Questions from Developmental Disorders

  1. Which of the following are correct regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? 

    1. Inherited as X-linked recessive disorder 

    2. Karyotype is 46 XXY 

    3. It is also called testicular feminization 

    4. Confirmation of diagnosis by gonadal biopsy 

    Select the answer using the code given below.

  2. A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhoea presents to the gynaecology OPD for evaluation. She has normal secondary sexual characters. Her karyotype is 46,XX and ultrasound reveals normal ovaries and tubes but absent uterus. What is her clinical diagnosis?
  3. The Gartner's duct cyst is usually located in
  4. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is:
  5. Rokintansky - Kuster - Hauser syndrome is associated with:
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