All Exams Test series for 1 year @ ₹349 only
Question

Trendelenburg's operation is done for

The correct answer is
primary varicose veins

Trendelenburg's Operation for Varicose Veins

Trendelenburg's operation is a surgical procedure specifically designed to treat a particular type of venous issue.

Purpose of Trendelenburg's Operation

The primary goal of this operation is to address primary varicose veins that arise due to the incompetence of the saphenofemoral junction (SFJ).

  • Saphenofemoral Incompetence: This condition occurs when the valve between the great saphenous vein and the femoral vein fails.
  • Reflux Prevention: The operation involves ligating (tying off) the great saphenous vein at its junction with the femoral vein. This stops the backward flow (reflux) of blood from the deep veins into the superficial veins, which causes varicose veins.
  • Target Condition: It is most effective for primary varicose veins originating from the groin area due to SFJ valve failure.

Why Not Other Options?

  • Varicocele: This is a condition affecting veins in the scrotum and requires different treatments.
  • Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) with Varicose Veins: Trendelenburg's operation is not used for DVT itself. While DVT can lead to secondary varicose veins, this procedure targets primary issues.
  • Arteriovenous Fistula: This involves abnormal connections between arteries and veins and is treated using distinct methods.

Therefore, Trendelenburg's operation is specifically indicated for primary varicose veins caused by saphenofemoral junction incompetence.

Was this answer helpful?

Important Questions from Blood Vessels

  1. A 48-year-old smoker presents to the OPD with complaints of cramping pain in both the calves on walking to about 100-150 metres. The pain is relieved on taking rest for about 2-3 minutes and the patient is able to walk for some more distance again before the pain appears. This presentation is suggestive of
  2. Indications for carotid endarterectomy in symptomatic patients are all of the following EXCEPT:
  3. A policeman of 45 years presented with Lipodermatosclerosis over lower medial aspect of left leg, along with a healed venous ulcer. As per the CEAP (Clinical-etiology-anatomy-pathophysiology) classification his clinical classification will be:
  4. Consider the following statements regarding claudication:
    1. It is a marker for silent coronary disease
    2. Structured exercise program ( 2 hours per week for 3 months) leads to improvement in symptoms
    3. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk and severity of claudication
    4. Beta blockers may exacerbate claudication
    Which of the above statements are correct?

  5. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aorta (Leriche syndrome)?

Need Expert Advice?

Start Your Preparation with Prepp Mobile App

Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Prepp Mobile App