The given wavefunction is $\psi(x) = e^{-(iax+\beta)}$, where $a$ and $\beta$ are real constants.
We use the time-independent Schrödinger equation:
$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + V(x)\psi(x) = E\psi(x)$First, calculate the derivatives of the wavefunction:
Substitute the second derivative back into the Schrödinger equation:
$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(-(a^2)\psi(x)) + V(x)\psi(x) = E\psi(x)$Simplify the equation:
$\frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{2m}\psi(x) + V(x)\psi(x) = E\psi(x)$Divide by $\psi(x)$ (since $\psi(x)$ is non-zero):
$\frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{2m} + V(x) = E$Rearrange to solve for the potential $V(x)$:
$V(x) = E - \frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{2m}$The derived potential $V(x) = E - \frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{2m}$ is a constant value because $E$, $\hbar$, $m$, and the real constant $a$ are all constants.
Comparing this result with the given options:
Therefore, the only potential that fits the condition is a constant potential, specifically $V(x) = 0$.
The wavefunction of a particle in an infinite one-dimensional potential well at time $t$ is
$\Psi(x, t) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} e^{-iE_1t/\hbar}\psi_1(x) + \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} e^{i\pi/6}e^{-iE_2t/\hbar}\psi_2(x) + \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} e^{i\pi/4}e^{-iE_3t/\hbar}\psi_3(x)$
where $\psi_1, \psi_2$ and $\psi_3$ are the normalized ground state, the normalized first excited state and the normalized second excited state, respectively. $E_1, E_2$ and $E_3$ are the eigen-energies corresponding to $\psi_1, \psi_2$ and $\psi_3$, respectively. The expectation value of energy of the particle in state $\Psi(x, t)$ is
A particle is subjected to a potential
$V(x) = \begin{cases} \infty, & x \le 0 \\ V_0, & a \le x \le b \\ 0, & \text{elsewhere} \end{cases}$
Here, $a > 0$ and $b > a$. If the energy of the particle $E < V_0$, which one of the following schematics is a valid quantum mechanical wavefunction ($\Psi$) for the system?
A particle of mass $m$ is moving in the potential
$V(x) = \begin{cases} V_0 + \frac{1}{2}m\omega_0^2x^2, & x > 0, \\ \infty, & x \le 0, \end{cases}$
Figures P, Q, R and S show different combinations of the values of $\omega_0$ and $V_0$. 
$E_j^{(P)}, E_j^{(Q)}, E_j^{(R)}$ and $E_j^{(S)}$ with $j = 0, 1, 2, ...$, are the eigen-energies of the $j$-th level for the potentials shown in figures P, Q, R and S, respectively. Which of the statement is/are true?