The policy ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ arises due to
convention of conservatism
The question asks about the accounting policy that requires a business to 'anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses'. This is a fundamental principle in accounting that guides how revenues and expenses, and assets and liabilities, are recognized in financial statements.
Let's look at the conventions mentioned in the options to understand which one leads to this policy:
Accounting conventions are guidelines that have evolved over time to help in the application of accounting principles. They ensure consistency and comparability in financial reporting, especially in situations where specific rules might not be sufficient.
The policy ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ directly arises from the convention of conservatism, also known as the prudence concept.
The core idea is to ensure that the financial statements do not overstate profits or assets and do not understate losses or liabilities. This approach aims to present a more realistic picture of the company's financial health and avoids distributing unrealized profits or facing unexpected losses later.
Let's briefly consider the other options to see why they don't explain the stated policy:
Therefore, the policy to 'anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses' is a direct application of the convention of conservatism.
The traditional accounting practice of resolving uncertainty by choosing the solution that leads to the lower amount of income being recognized in the current accounting period is based on which of the following accounting principles?
“Advance received from a supplier is not taken as income or sales.” This comment is based on
Revenue from sale of goods ordinarily is reported as a part of the earning in the period
The generally acceptable accounting principles (GAAP) fulfill the conditions of
(i) Relevance
(ii) Objectivity
(iii) Feasibility
A firm purchases a piece of land after making full payment to the seller. However, the legal formalities are yet to be completed. According to which principle does the firm record the transaction in its books of accounts though the legal formalities are NOT completed?