The Fourier series of the function, f(x) = 0, -π < x ≤ 0 = π - x, 0 < x < π in the interval [= π, π] is \(f\left( x \right) = \frac{\pi }{4} + \frac{2}{\pi }\left[ {\frac{{\cos x}}{1^2} + \frac{{\cos 3x}}{{{3^2}}} \ldots \ldots \ldots } \right] + \left[ {\frac{{\sin x}}{1} + \frac{{\sin 2x}}{2} + \frac{{\sin 3x}}{3} + \ldots \ldots \ldots } \right]\) The convergence of the above Fourier series at 𝑥 = 0 gives
This problem requires us to understand how a Fourier series behaves at a point of jump discontinuity and relate this behavior to specific mathematical series identities.
The function f(x) is defined on the interval [‐π, π] as follows:
f(x) = 0 for ‐π < x ≤ 0f(x) = π - x for 0 < x < πA fundamental property of Fourier series is that at points where a function has a jump discontinuity, the series converges to the average of the left-hand and right-hand limits of the function at that point. This is a direct consequence of the convergence criteria for Fourier series.
We need to find the limits of f(x) as x approaches 0:
x ≤ 0, f(x) = 0.
$$ \lim_{x \to 0^-} f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^-} 0 = 0 $$
0 < x < π, f(x) = π - x.
$$ \lim_{x \to 0^+} f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^+} (\pi - x) = \pi - 0 = \pi $$
At x = 0, the Fourier series converges to the average of these limits:
Thus, the Fourier series converges to &frac{\pi}{2} at x = 0.
The question provides the specific Fourier series expansion for f(x):
Let's substitute x = 0 into this series. We use the known values cos(0) = 1 and sin(0) = 0.
Substituting these results back into the Fourier series expression at x = 0, denoted as S(0):
We found that the Fourier series converges to S(0) = &frac{\pi}{2} at x = 0. Equating this with the evaluated series expression:
Now, we solve this equation for the summation term, which represents the convergence result being asked for:
$$ \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{2}{\pi } \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n-1)^2} $$ $$ \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{2}{\pi } \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n-1)^2} $$To isolate the sum, we multiply both sides by &frac{\pi}{2}:
This calculation demonstrates that the convergence of the given Fourier series at x = 0 yields the specific mathematical identity \(\mathop \sum \limits_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{{\left( {2n - 1} \right)^2}} = \frac{{{\pi ^2}}}{8}\).
Let's compare our derived identity with the options given in the question:
The result we obtained, \(\mathop \sum \limits_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{{\left( {2n - 1} \right)^2}} = \frac{{{\pi ^2}}}{8}\), directly corresponds to Option 3.
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