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Question

Let $X_i$'s be independent random variables such that $X_i$'s are symmetric about 0 and $\text{Var}(X_i) = 2i-1$, for $i \ge 1$. Then,
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} P(X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n > n \log n)$$

The correct answer is
equals 0.

Properties of Random Variables

We are given independent random variables $X_i$ ($i \ge 1$) that are symmetric about 0.

  • Symmetry about 0 implies that the expected value $E[X_i] = 0$.
  • The variance is given as $\text{Var}(X_i) = 2i-1$.

Variance of the Sum

Let $S_n = X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n$.

Since the $X_i$'s are independent, the variance of the sum $S_n$ is the sum of their variances:

$ \text{Var}(S_n) = \sum_{i=1}^n \text{Var}(X_i) $

Substitute the given variance formula:

$ \text{Var}(S_n) = \sum_{i=1}^n (2i-1) $

This is the sum of the first $n$ odd positive integers, which equals $n^2$.

$ \text{Var}(S_n) = n^2 $

The standard deviation of $S_n$ is $\sigma_{S_n} = \sqrt{\text{Var}(S_n)} = \sqrt{n^2} = n$.

The expected value of the sum is $E[S_n] = \sum_{i=1}^n E[X_i] = \sum_{i=1}^n 0 = 0$.

Applying Chebyshev's Inequality

We want to evaluate the limit $\lim_{n\to\infty} P(S_n > n \log n)$.

Chebyshev's inequality provides a bound for the probability that a random variable deviates from its mean. It states:

$ P(|Y - E[Y]| \ge k \sigma_Y) \le \frac{1}{k^2} $ where $Y$ is a random variable, $E[Y]$ is its mean, $\sigma_Y$ is its standard deviation, and $k > 0$.

Apply this to $Y = S_n$, with $E[S_n] = 0$ and $\sigma_{S_n} = n$. We are interested in the event $S_n > n \log n$.

Since $X_i$ are symmetric about 0, $S_n$ is also symmetric about 0. This means $P(S_n > a) = P(S_n < -a)$ for any $a$. Therefore, $P(|S_n| > a) = 2 P(S_n > a)$.

Specifically, $P(S_n > n \log n) = \frac{1}{2} P(|S_n| > n \log n)$.

Using Chebyshev's inequality with $Y=S_n$, $E[Y]=0$, $\sigma_Y=n$, and the threshold $a = n \log n$. We need $k$ such that $k \sigma_{S_n} = n \log n$, so $k \cdot n = n \log n$, which gives $k = \log n$. (Note: $k = \log n > 0$ for $n > 1$).

$ P(|S_n| \ge n \log n) \le \frac{\text{Var}(S_n)}{(n \log n)^2} = \frac{n^2}{(n \log n)^2} $

$ P(|S_n| \ge n \log n) \le \frac{n^2}{n^2 (\log n)^2} = \frac{1}{(\log n)^2} $

Evaluating the Limit

From the relationship $P(S_n > n \log n) = \frac{1}{2} P(|S_n| > n \log n)$ and the Chebyshev bound:

$ 0 \le P(S_n > n \log n) \le \frac{1}{2} P(|S_n| \ge n \log n) \le \frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{(\log n)^2} $

Now, consider the limit as $n \to \infty$:

$ \lim_{n\to\infty} 0 = 0 $

$ \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{2 (\log n)^2} = 0 $ since $\log n \to \infty$ as $n \to \infty$.

By the Squeeze Theorem, since $P(S_n > n \log n)$ is bounded between two functions that both approach 0 as $n \to \infty$, the limit must also be 0.

$ \lim_{n\to\infty} P(S_n > n \log n) = 0 $

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Important Questions from Central Limit Theorems

  1. Let $X_1, X_2, . . .$ be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables with $E(X_1) = 0, E(X_1^2) = 1, E(X_1^3) = 0, E(X_1^4) = 3$. Let $S_n = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i, T_n = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i^2, U_n = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i^3$ and $V_n = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i^4$. Then, which of the following statements are true?
  2. Let $\{X_i; i \ge 1\}$ be a sequence of independent random variables each having a normal distribution with mean 2 and variance 5. Then which of the following are true
  3. For $n \ge 1$, let $X_n$ be a Poisson random variable with mean $n^2$. Which of the following are equal to $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_2^\infty e^{-x^2/2} dx$?
  4. Let $\{X_n : n \ge 1\}$ be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables and the probability mass function of $X_1$ is the following; 

    $P(X_1 = 1) = P(X_1 = 3) = \frac{1}{2}.$ If $Y_n = X_1 + \cdots + X_n$, 

    then which of the following statements are correct?

  5. Suppose $X_1, X_2, \dots$ are independent random variables. Assume that $X_1, X_3, \dots$ are identically distributed with mean $\mu_1$ and variance $\sigma_1^2$, while $X_2, X_4, \dots$ are identically distributed with mean $\mu_2$ variance $\sigma_2^2$. Let $S_n = X_1 + X_2 + \dots + X_n$. Then $\frac{S_n - a_n}{b_n}$ converges in distribution to $N(0,1)$ if

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