\( \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} dx = \)
0
We are asked to evaluate the definite integral:
\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} dx \)
First, let's simplify the integrand using basic trigonometric identities. We know that \( \cot x = \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \) and \( \cosec x = \frac{1}{\sin x} \). Substitute these into the integrand:
\( \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} = \frac{1 - \frac{\cos x}{\sin x}}{\frac{1}{\sin x} + \cos x} \)
To simplify the complex fraction, find a common denominator in the numerator and the denominator:
\( = \frac{\frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x}}{\frac{1 + \cos x \sin x}{\sin x}} \)
Now, multiply the numerator by the reciprocal of the denominator:
\( = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x} \times \frac{\sin x}{1 + \cos x \sin x} \)
Cancel out the \( \sin x \) term:
\( = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \)
So the integral becomes:
\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} dx \)
This form of integral is often solved using a property of definite integrals. The property states that for a function \( f(x) \) and a limit \( a \):
\( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \)
In our case, the upper limit is \( a = \frac{\pi}{2} \). Let \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \). We need to find \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) \).
Substitute \( x \) with \( \frac{\pi}{2} - x \) in \( f(x) \):
\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) - \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x)}{1 + \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x)} \)
Using the complementary angle identities, \( \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \cos x \) and \( \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \sin x \):
\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{\cos x - \sin x}{1 + \cos x \sin x} \)
Notice that \( \cos x - \sin x = -(\sin x - \cos x) \). So:
\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{-(\sin x - \cos x)}{1 + \sin x \cos x} = - \left( \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \right) = -f(x) \)
Now apply the property to the integral \( I \):
\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) dx \)
\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} -f(x) dx \)
Since the integral of a constant times a function is the constant times the integral of the function:
\( I = - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx \)
We know that \( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx \), so:
\( I = -I \)
Adding \( I \) to both sides gives:
\( I + I = 0 \)
\( 2I = 0 \)
Dividing by 2:
\( I = 0 \)
Thus, the value of the definite integral is 0.
| Concept | Description | Relevance to Problem |
|---|---|---|
| Trigonometric Identities | Basic relationships between trigonometric functions (e.g., \( \cot x = \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \), \( \cosec x = \frac{1}{\sin x} \)). | Used to simplify the integrand into a more manageable form. |
| Definite Integral Properties | Rules that apply to definite integrals, such as \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \). | The key property used to solve the simplified integral by showing \( I = -I \). |
| Substitution \( x \to a-x \) | Replacing the variable \( x \) with \( a-x \) within the integral limits \( [0, a] \). | Essential step in applying the specific definite integral property. |
| Odd/Even-like Symmetry about \( a/2 \) | When \( f(a-x) = -f(x) \), the function has symmetry such that the integral from \( 0 \) to \( a \) is zero. | The property \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = -f(x) \) led directly to the integral value being zero. |
Definite integral properties are very useful for evaluating integrals, especially when direct integration is difficult. The property \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \) is particularly powerful. Let's explore why it works.
Consider the substitution \( u = a - x \). Then \( du = -dx \). When \( x = 0 \), \( u = a \). When \( x = a \), \( u = a - a = 0 \). So, the integral \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx \) becomes:
\( \int_{a}^{0} f(a-u) (-du) \)
Using the property \( \int_{b}^{a} g(x) dx = - \int_{a}^{b} g(x) dx \):
\( - \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) (-du) = - (- \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du) = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du \)
Since \( u \) is just a dummy variable of integration, we can replace it with \( x \):
\( \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \)
This proves the property \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \).
In our problem, we applied this property with \( a = \frac{\pi}{2} \). The integrand \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \) turned out to be such that \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = -f(x) \). When this condition \( f(a-x) = -f(x) \) holds for an integral from \( 0 \) to \( a \), the integral evaluates to 0. This is because \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} -f(x) dx = - \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx \), leading to \( 2 \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = 0 \), and thus the integral is 0.
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The value of the integral \( \int_{\log_e 2}^{\log_e 3} \frac{e^{2x}- 1}{e^{2x} + 1} dx \) is :
\(\displaystyle \int \frac{\pi}{x^{n+1} - x} dx\)
\(\int_{2}^{3} |2x - 1| \,dx =\)
\(\int \frac{dx}{x^a} =\)