All Exams Test series for 1 year @ ₹349 only
Question

\( \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} dx = \)

The correct answer is

0

Evaluating the Definite Integral \( \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} dx \)

We are asked to evaluate the definite integral:

\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} dx \)

First, let's simplify the integrand using basic trigonometric identities. We know that \( \cot x = \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \) and \( \cosec x = \frac{1}{\sin x} \). Substitute these into the integrand:

\( \frac{1 - \cot x}{\cosec x + \cos x} = \frac{1 - \frac{\cos x}{\sin x}}{\frac{1}{\sin x} + \cos x} \)

To simplify the complex fraction, find a common denominator in the numerator and the denominator:

\( = \frac{\frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x}}{\frac{1 + \cos x \sin x}{\sin x}} \)

Now, multiply the numerator by the reciprocal of the denominator:

\( = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x} \times \frac{\sin x}{1 + \cos x \sin x} \)

Cancel out the \( \sin x \) term:

\( = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \)

So the integral becomes:

\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} dx \)

This form of integral is often solved using a property of definite integrals. The property states that for a function \( f(x) \) and a limit \( a \):

\( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \)

In our case, the upper limit is \( a = \frac{\pi}{2} \). Let \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \). We need to find \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) \).

Substitute \( x \) with \( \frac{\pi}{2} - x \) in \( f(x) \):

\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) - \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x)}{1 + \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x)} \)

Using the complementary angle identities, \( \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \cos x \) and \( \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \sin x \):

\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{\cos x - \sin x}{1 + \cos x \sin x} \)

Notice that \( \cos x - \sin x = -(\sin x - \cos x) \). So:

\( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \frac{-(\sin x - \cos x)}{1 + \sin x \cos x} = - \left( \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \right) = -f(x) \)

Now apply the property to the integral \( I \):

\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) dx \)

\( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} -f(x) dx \)

Since the integral of a constant times a function is the constant times the integral of the function:

\( I = - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx \)

We know that \( I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx \), so:

\( I = -I \)

Adding \( I \) to both sides gives:

\( I + I = 0 \)

\( 2I = 0 \)

Dividing by 2:

\( I = 0 \)

Thus, the value of the definite integral is 0.

Revision Table: Key Concepts

ConceptDescriptionRelevance to Problem
Trigonometric IdentitiesBasic relationships between trigonometric functions (e.g., \( \cot x = \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} \), \( \cosec x = \frac{1}{\sin x} \)).Used to simplify the integrand into a more manageable form.
Definite Integral PropertiesRules that apply to definite integrals, such as \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \).The key property used to solve the simplified integral by showing \( I = -I \).
Substitution \( x \to a-x \)Replacing the variable \( x \) with \( a-x \) within the integral limits \( [0, a] \).Essential step in applying the specific definite integral property.
Odd/Even-like Symmetry about \( a/2 \)When \( f(a-x) = -f(x) \), the function has symmetry such that the integral from \( 0 \) to \( a \) is zero.The property \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = -f(x) \) led directly to the integral value being zero.


 

Additional Information on Definite Integral Properties

Definite integral properties are very useful for evaluating integrals, especially when direct integration is difficult. The property \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \) is particularly powerful. Let's explore why it works.

Consider the substitution \( u = a - x \). Then \( du = -dx \). When \( x = 0 \), \( u = a \). When \( x = a \), \( u = a - a = 0 \). So, the integral \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx \) becomes:

\( \int_{a}^{0} f(a-u) (-du) \)

Using the property \( \int_{b}^{a} g(x) dx = - \int_{a}^{b} g(x) dx \):

\( - \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) (-du) = - (- \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du) = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du \)

Since \( u \) is just a dummy variable of integration, we can replace it with \( x \):

\( \int_{0}^{a} f(a-u) du = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \)

This proves the property \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx \).

In our problem, we applied this property with \( a = \frac{\pi}{2} \). The integrand \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 + \sin x \cos x} \) turned out to be such that \( f(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = -f(x) \). When this condition \( f(a-x) = -f(x) \) holds for an integral from \( 0 \) to \( a \), the integral evaluates to 0. This is because \( \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} -f(x) dx = - \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx \), leading to \( 2 \int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = 0 \), and thus the integral is 0.

 

Was this answer helpful?

Important Questions from Integrals

  1.  $$ \int e^x \left( \frac{2x + 1}{2\sqrt{x}} \right) dx = $$

  2. The value of the integral \( \int_{\log_e 2}^{\log_e 3} \frac{e^{2x}- 1}{e^{2x} + 1} dx \)   is :

  3. \(\displaystyle \int \frac{\pi}{x^{n+1} - x} dx\)

  4. \(\int_{2}^{3} |2x - 1| \,dx =\)

  5. \(\int \frac{dx}{x^a} =\)

Need Expert Advice?

Start Your Preparation with Prepp Mobile App

Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Prepp Mobile App