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Question

If tan(α + iβ) = i, where α and β are real then α will be _____.

The correct answer is

uncertain

Understanding the Problem: Solving for α in a Complex Tangent Equation

The question asks us to find the value of the real part, α, given the equation $\tan(\alpha+i\beta) = i$, where α and β are real numbers. This involves working with the $\tan(z)$ function for a complex variable $z=\alpha+i\beta$.

We need to use properties of Complex Numbers to solve this equation and determine the nature of α.

Solving the Equation $\tan(\alpha+i\beta) = i$

We can express the tangent function in terms of sines and cosines:

$$\tan(\alpha+i\beta) = \frac{\sin(\alpha+i\beta)}{\cos(\alpha+i\beta)}$$

Given that this equals $i$, we have:

$$\frac{\sin(\alpha+i\beta)}{\cos(\alpha+i\beta)} = i$$

This implies:

$$\sin(\alpha+i\beta) = i\cos(\alpha+i\beta)$$

We can use the formulas for sine and cosine of a complex number:

  • $\sin(x+iy) = \sin x \cosh y + i\cos x \sinh y$
  • $\cos(x+iy) = \cos x \cosh y - i\sin x \sinh y$

Substituting $x=\alpha$ and $y=\beta$, we get:

$$\sin\alpha\cosh\beta + i\cos\alpha\sinh\beta = i(\cos\alpha\cosh\beta - i\sin\alpha\sinh\beta)$$

Simplify the right side:

$$\sin\alpha\cosh\beta + i\cos\alpha\sinh\beta = i\cos\alpha\cosh\beta - i^2\sin\alpha\sinh\beta$$

Since $i^2=-1$:

$$\sin\alpha\cosh\beta + i\cos\alpha\sinh\beta = i\cos\alpha\cosh\beta + \sin\alpha\sinh\beta$$

Equating Real and Imaginary Parts

For two complex numbers to be equal, their real and imaginary parts must be equal. Equating the real parts:

$$\sin\alpha\cosh\beta = \sin\alpha\sinh\beta$$

Rearranging gives:

$$\sin\alpha(\cosh\beta - \sinh\beta) = 0$$

Using the identity $\cosh\beta - \sinh\beta = e^{-\beta}$:

$$\sin\alpha \cdot e^{-\beta} = 0$$

Since β is real, $e^{-\beta}$ is always a positive real number and can never be zero. Therefore, we must have:

$$\sin\alpha = 0$$

Now, equating the imaginary parts:

$$\cos\alpha\sinh\beta = \cos\alpha\cosh\beta$$

Rearranging gives:

$$\cos\alpha(\cosh\beta - \sinh\beta) = 0$$

Using the identity $\cosh\beta - \sinh\beta = e^{-\beta}$:

$$\cos\alpha \cdot e^{-\beta} = 0$$

Again, since $e^{-\beta} \neq 0$, we must have:

$$\cos\alpha = 0$$

Analyzing the Conditions for α

We have arrived at two conditions for the real number α:

  1. $\sin\alpha = 0$
  2. $\cos\alpha = 0$

However, for any real number α, it is a fundamental trigonometric identity that $\sin^2\alpha + \cos^2\alpha = 1$.

If $\sin\alpha = 0$ and $\cos\alpha = 0$ were simultaneously true for a real α, then substituting into the identity would give $0^2+0^2 = 1$, which simplifies to $0=1$. This is a contradiction.

This means that there is no real value of α that can satisfy both conditions simultaneously. The initial premise that there exists a real α and β such that $\tan(\alpha+i\beta) = i$ leads to a contradiction for real α and β.

Therefore, α cannot take any specific real value, whether finite or infinite. In the context of the given options, this situation is best described as α being "uncertain", meaning it does not exist as a real number satisfying the conditions.

Revisiting with the Exponential Form

Alternatively, we can directly use the exponential definition of $\tan z$:

$$\tan z = \frac{e^{iz}-e^{-iz}}{i(e^{iz}+e^{-iz})}$$

Setting $z=\alpha+i\beta$ and $\tan z = i$:

$$\frac{e^{i(\alpha+i\beta)}-e^{-i(\alpha+i\beta)}}{i(e^{i(\alpha+i\beta)}+e^{-i(\alpha+i\beta)})} = i$$

$$\frac{e^{i\alpha-\beta}-e^{-i\alpha+\beta}}{i(e^{i\alpha-\beta}+e^{-i\alpha+\beta})} = i$$

$$\frac{e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha}}{i(e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}+e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha})} = i$$

$$e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha} = i^2(e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}+e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha})$$

$$e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha} = -(e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}+e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha})$$

$$e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha} = -e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha}$$

Add $e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}$ to both sides:

$$-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha} = -2e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}-e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha}$$

Add $e^{\beta}e^{-i\alpha}$ to both sides:

$$0 = -2e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha}$$

$$2e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha} = 0$$

$$e^{-\beta}e^{i\alpha} = 0$$

Since $e^{-\beta}$ is a positive real number for real β, this implies $e^{i\alpha}=0$. However, using Euler's formula, $e^{i\alpha} = \cos\alpha + i\sin\alpha$. For this to be zero, both $\cos\alpha$ and $\sin\alpha$ must be zero, which is impossible for any real α. This confirms our earlier finding.

Thus, the equation $\tan(\alpha+i\beta) = i$ has no solution where α and β are real. Therefore, the real part α is not a determined value; it is uncertain in the context of finding a real solution.

Conclusion on the Value of α

Based on the analysis using the properties of the tangent function for Complex Numbers, the requirement that α and β are real leads to a mathematical contradiction. This indicates that there are no real values of α and β that satisfy the given equation. Consequently, the real part α is not a fixed, existent value (finite or infinite) under the given conditions. The term that best describes this non-existence as a real number from the options is "uncertain".

The final answer is uncertain.

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Important Questions from Inverse Trigonometric Functions

  1. What is \(1+\sin ^2\left(\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{\sqrt{17}}\right)\right)\) equal to ?

  2. What is 2 cot \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \cos ^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{5}}{3}\right)\) equal to ?

  3. If sec-1 p - cosec-1q = 0, where p > 0, q > 0; then what is the value of p-2 + q-2 ?

  4. Consider the following statements:

    1. There exists \({\rm{\theta }} \in \left( { - \frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{2},\frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{2}} \right)\) for which tan -1 (tan θ) ≠ θ

    2. \({\sin ^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right) - {\sin ^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{5}} \right) = {\sin ^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{{2\sqrt 2 \left( {\sqrt 3 - 1} \right)}}{{15}}} \right)\)

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  5. Consider the following statements:

    1. \({\tan ^{ - 1}}{\rm{x}} + {\tan ^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{{\rm{x}}}} \right) = {\rm{\pi }}\)

    2. There exist x, y ∈ [-1, 1], where x ≠ y such that sin -1 x + cos -1 \({\rm{y}} = \frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{2}\)

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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