If f(๐ฅ) and g(๐ฅ) are two probability density functions, \(\begin{array}{l} f\left( x \right) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {\frac{x}{a} + 1}&{: - a \le x < 0}\\ { - \frac{x}{a} + 1}&{0 \le x \le a}\\ 0&{otherwise} \end{array}} \right.\\ g\left( x \right) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} { - \frac{x}{a}}&{:-a \le x \le 0}\\ {\frac{x}{a}}&{:0 \le x \le a}\\ 0&{:otherewise} \end{array}} \right. \end{array}\) Which one of the following statements is true?
Mean of f(๐ฅ) and g(๐ฅ) are same; Variance of f(๐ฅ) and g(๐ฅ) are different
To determine the correct statement, we need to calculate the mean and variance for both probability density functions, \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\). A probability density function (PDF) must satisfy two conditions: it must be non-negative for all \(x\), and the integral over its entire domain must equal 1.
The function \(f(x)\) is defined as:
\(f\left( x \right) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{} {\frac{x}{a} + 1}&{: - a \le x < 0}\\ { - \frac{x}{a} + 1}&{0 \le x \le a}\\ 0&{otherwise} \end{array}} \right.\)
The mean (\(\mu_f\)) of a continuous probability density function \(f(x)\) is given by the formula:
\(\mu_f = E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x f(x) dx\)
For \(f(x)\), we integrate over the non-zero intervals:
\(\mu_f = \int_{-a}^{0} x \left(\frac{x}{a} + 1\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} x \left(-\frac{x}{a} + 1\right) dx\)
\(\mu_f = \int_{-a}^{0} \left(\frac{x^2}{a} + x\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} \left(-\frac{x^2}{a} + x\right) dx\)
Now, let's evaluate each integral:
\(I_1 = \left[\frac{x^3}{3a} + \frac{x^2}{2}\right]_{-a}^{0}\)
\(I_1 = \left(0 - \left(\frac{(-a)^3}{3a} + \frac{(-a)^2}{2}\right)\right)\)
\(I_1 = -\left(-\frac{a^3}{3a} + \frac{a^2}{2}\right) = -\left(-\frac{a^2}{3} + \frac{a^2}{2}\right)\)
\(I_1 = -\left(\frac{-2a^2 + 3a^2}{6}\right) = -\frac{a^2}{6}\)
\(I_2 = \left[-\frac{x^3}{3a} + \frac{x^2}{2}\right]_{0}^{a}\)
\(I_2 = \left(-\frac{a^3}{3a} + \frac{a^2}{2}\right) - 0\)
\(I_2 = -\frac{a^2}{3} + \frac{a^2}{2} = \frac{-2a^2 + 3a^2}{6} = \frac{a^2}{6}\)
Combining these results:
\(\mu_f = I_1 + I_2 = -\frac{a^2}{6} + \frac{a^2}{6} = 0\)
So, the mean of \(f(x)\) is 0.
The variance (\(\sigma_f^2\)) of a continuous probability density function is given by the formula:
\(\sigma_f^2 = E[X^2] - (E[X])^2\)
Since \(\mu_f = E[X] = 0\), the variance simplifies to \(\sigma_f^2 = E[X^2]\).
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^2 f(x) dx\)
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-a}^{0} x^2 \left(\frac{x}{a} + 1\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} x^2 \left(-\frac{x}{a} + 1\right) dx\)
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-a}^{0} \left(\frac{x^3}{a} + x^2\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} \left(-\frac{x^3}{a} + x^2\right) dx\)
Now, let's evaluate each integral:
\(J_1 = \left[\frac{x^4}{4a} + \frac{x^3}{3}\right]_{-a}^{0}\)
\(J_1 = \left(0 - \left(\frac{(-a)^4}{4a} + \frac{(-a)^3}{3}\right)\right)\)
\(J_1 = -\left(\frac{a^4}{4a} - \frac{a^3}{3}\right) = -\left(\frac{a^3}{4} - \frac{a^3}{3}\right)\)
\(J_1 = -\left(\frac{3a^3 - 4a^3}{12}\right) = -\left(-\frac{a^3}{12}\right) = \frac{a^3}{12}\)
\(J_2 = \left[-\frac{x^4}{4a} + \frac{x^3}{3}\right]_{0}^{a}\)
\(J_2 = \left(-\frac{a^4}{4a} + \frac{a^3}{3}\right) - 0\)
\(J_2 = -\frac{a^3}{4} + \frac{a^3}{3} = \frac{-3a^3 + 4a^3}{12} = \frac{a^3}{12}\)
Combining these results:
\(\sigma_f^2 = E[X^2] = J_1 + J_2 = \frac{a^3}{12} + \frac{a^3}{12} = \frac{2a^3}{12} = \frac{a^3}{6}\)
So, the variance of \(f(x)\) is \(\frac{a^3}{6}\).
The function \(g(x)\) is defined as:
\(g\left( x \right) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{} { - \frac{x}{a}}&{:-a \le x \le 0}\\ {\frac{x}{a}}&{:0 \le x \le a}\\ 0&{:otherewise} \end{array}} \right.\)
The mean (\(\mu_g\)) of a continuous probability density function \(g(x)\) is given by:
\(\mu_g = E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x g(x) dx\)
For \(g(x)\), we integrate over the non-zero intervals:
\(\mu_g = \int_{-a}^{0} x \left(-\frac{x}{a}\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} x \left(\frac{x}{a}\right) dx\)
\(\mu_g = \int_{-a}^{0} \left(-\frac{x^2}{a}\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} \left(\frac{x^2}{a}\right) dx\)
Now, let's evaluate each integral:
\(K_1 = \left[-\frac{x^3}{3a}\right]_{-a}^{0}\)
\(K_1 = \left(0 - \left(-\frac{(-a)^3}{3a}\right)\right) = -\left(-\frac{-a^3}{3a}\right) = -\left(\frac{a^2}{3}\right) = -\frac{a^2}{3}\)
\(K_2 = \left[\frac{x^3}{3a}\right]_{0}^{a}\)
\(K_2 = \left(\frac{a^3}{3a}\right) - 0 = \frac{a^2}{3}\)
Combining these results:
\(\mu_g = K_1 + K_2 = -\frac{a^2}{3} + \frac{a^2}{3} = 0\)
So, the mean of \(g(x)\) is 0.
Since \(\mu_g = E[X] = 0\), the variance simplifies to \(\sigma_g^2 = E[X^2]\).
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^2 g(x) dx\)
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-a}^{0} x^2 \left(-\frac{x}{a}\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} x^2 \left(\frac{x}{a}\right) dx\)
\(E[X^2] = \int_{-a}^{0} \left(-\frac{x^3}{a}\right) dx + \int_{0}^{a} \left(\frac{x^3}{a}\right) dx\)
Now, let's evaluate each integral:
\(L_1 = \left[-\frac{x^4}{4a}\right]_{-a}^{0}\)
\(L_1 = \left(0 - \left(-\frac{(-a)^4}{4a}\right)\right) = -\left(-\frac{a^4}{4a}\right) = -\left(-\frac{a^3}{4}\right) = \frac{a^3}{4}\)
\(L_2 = \left[\frac{x^4}{4a}\right]_{0}^{a}\)
\(L_2 = \left(\frac{a^4}{4a}\right) - 0 = \frac{a^3}{4}\)
Combining these results:
\(\sigma_g^2 = E[X^2] = L_1 + L_2 = \frac{a^3}{4} + \frac{a^3}{4} = \frac{2a^3}{4} = \frac{a^3}{2}\)
So, the variance of \(g(x)\) is \(\frac{a^3}{2}\).
Let's summarize our findings for the mean and variance of both probability density functions:
From this, we see that the mean of \(f(x)\) and the mean of \(g(x)\) are the same.
Since \(\frac{a^3}{6} \ne \frac{a^3}{2}\) (assuming \(a \ne 0\), which is implicit for the functions to be well-defined PDFs), the variance of \(f(x)\) and the variance of \(g(x)\) are different.
Based on our calculations, the mean of \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are the same, while the variance of \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are different. This matches the statement in option 2.
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